what is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration
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ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.

2. A client with a history of depression and experiencing a situational crisis is being assessed by a nurse. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis, the first action the nurse should take is to notify the client's support system. This is crucial as the client may require immediate assistance and support. While helping the client identify personal strengths and confirming the client's perception of the event are important aspects of the assessment and intervention process, notifying the support system takes priority in ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial but addressing the client's immediate crisis through support system notification is the most appropriate initial action.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

4. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

5. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

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