Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Encourage oral fluids
• C. Monitor electrolytes
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.

2. A client has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking antacids at the same time as this medication.
• C. Take this medication if your heart rate is above 100/min.
• D. Notify your provider if you experience nausea or visual changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed digoxin is to notify the provider if they experience nausea or visual changes, as these symptoms can indicate digoxin toxicity. Option A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Option B is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option C is incorrect as taking digoxin based on heart rate alone is not appropriate.

3. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a urinary tract infection and is receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth.
• B. Photosensitivity.
• C. Headache.
• D. Urinary retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Photosensitivity. Ciprofloxacin can cause photosensitivity, making the client more sensitive to sunlight. It is essential for the nurse to report this finding to the provider so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent skin damage. Dry mouth, headache, and urinary retention are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and do not require immediate reporting to the provider in this scenario.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid consuming carbohydrate-rich foods.
• B. Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
• C. Drink a glass of water to raise blood glucose levels.
• D. Eat a snack before exercising to prevent hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.

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