ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check for tube placement.
- B. Flush the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Administer the medications as a bolus.
- D. Dissolve the medications in 30 mL of sterile water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer medications to a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube is to check for tube placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the NG tube is correctly positioned in the stomach and not in the respiratory tract, reducing the risk of aspiration. Flushing the NG tube with 0.9% sodium chloride, administering the medications as a bolus, or dissolving the medications in sterile water should only be done after confirming the proper placement of the NG tube. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they precede the essential step of verifying tube placement.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 91%
- B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
- C. Productive cough with green sputum
- D. Decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet to promote wound healing. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Bananas
- B. Fish
- C. White bread
- D. Chicken breast
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent source of protein, which is essential for wound healing due to its role in tissue repair and regeneration. Fish is also a good source of protein, but chicken breast is a more commonly recommended option for wound healing due to its high protein content and lower fat content compared to some types of fish. Bananas and white bread, on the other hand, are not high-protein foods and do not provide the necessary nutrients for wound healing.
4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Sleep with the head of the bed elevated.
- B. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
- C. Eat three large meals each day.
- D. Lie down after eating.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid drinking fluids with meals. This is because consuming fluids while eating can exacerbate reflux symptoms by increasing stomach distension and contributing to the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus. Option A is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help prevent reflux during sleep, not while drinking fluids. Option C is incorrect as consuming three large meals a day can worsen GERD symptoms due to increased gastric distension. Option D is incorrect as lying down after eating can also worsen GERD symptoms by promoting the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin
- B. Elevated white blood cell count
- C. Decreased fibrinogen level
- D. Decreased platelet count
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.
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