Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

• A. Paradoxical pulse
• B. Dependent edema
• C. Pericardial friction rub
• D. Substernal chest pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with pericarditis, the priority finding is a paradoxical pulse. This is a crucial sign of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac, causing compression of the heart. A paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic blood pressure (>10 mmHg) during inspiration. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent hemodynamic instability and cardiac arrest. Dependent edema (choice B) is not typically associated with pericarditis. Pericardial friction rub (choice C) is a common finding in pericarditis but does not indicate the urgency of intervention as a paradoxical pulse. Substernal chest pain (choice D) is a classic symptom of pericarditis but is not as critical as a paradoxical pulse in the context of assessing for complications.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Amylase.
• C. Hemoglobin.
• D. Blood glucose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amylase. Amylase is typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated serum creatinine levels are more indicative of kidney dysfunction rather than pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels are not directly related to pancreatitis. While blood glucose levels can be affected by pancreatitis, they are not typically the primary laboratory result expected to be elevated in this condition.

5. What is the first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure?

• A. Protect the patient from injury
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Administer anti-seizure medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action to take when a patient experiences a seizure is to protect the patient from injury. This is crucial to prevent harm during the seizure. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or anti-seizure medication may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but ensuring their safety by removing harmful objects, cushioning their head, and keeping the area clear is the immediate priority. Administering oxygen, IV fluids, or medication would come after ensuring the patient's safety.

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