ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
2. How should signs of dehydration in an elderly patient be assessed?
- A. Monitor skin turgor
- B. Check for dry mucous membranes
- C. Monitor for sunken eyes
- D. Check capillary refill
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in elderly patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity or the skin's ability to return to its normal position after being pinched. In dehydration, the skin loses its elasticity, becoming less flexible and slower to return to its original state. Checking for dry mucous membranes (Choice B), monitoring for sunken eyes (Choice C), and checking capillary refill (Choice D) are all relevant assessments in dehydration but are not as specific or sensitive as monitoring skin turgor. Dry mucous membranes and sunken eyes are indicators of dehydration, while capillary refill is more related to circulatory status and less specific to dehydration.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sodium 140 mEq/L. An elevated sodium level can affect the effectiveness of digoxin therapy and may lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to report this value to the provider. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are important as well, but elevated sodium can have a more direct impact on digoxin therapy in this scenario.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a group of clients. The nurse should recommend a referral to a dietitian.
- A. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and states, 'I will need to limit how much spinach I eat.'
- B. A client who has gout and states, 'I can continue to eat anchovies on my pizza.'
- C. A client who has a prescription for spironolactone and states, 'I will reduce my intake of foods that contain potassium.'
- D. A client who has osteoporosis and states, 'I'll plan to take my calcium carbonate with a full glass of water.'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium and water. Therefore, clients on spironolactone should reduce their intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because limiting spinach intake due to warfarin, eating anchovies with gout, and taking calcium carbonate with water for osteoporosis do not directly relate to the medication's side effects or dietary restrictions associated with spironolactone.
5. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?
- A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
- B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
- C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
- D. I have the right to refuse treatment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access