which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to identify common objects. Clients with schizophrenia often experience cognitive deficits, such as difficulty in identifying common objects. This can be attributed to impairments in perception and cognition. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head injuries or metabolic disturbances. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders, not schizophrenia. Poor problem-solving ability is a characteristic of conditions affecting executive functioning like dementia, rather than schizophrenia.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with patients on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide use due to its mechanism of action in the kidneys. Hyponatremia (choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not common electrolyte imbalances seen with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

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