which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about managing fluid intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You should restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day." Clients with heart failure should limit their fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choice A is incorrect because 2 liters of water per day may be excessive for someone with heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as unlimited fluid intake is not suitable for individuals with heart failure. Choice D is also incorrect as 3 liters per day may be too much fluid for a client with heart failure.

4. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.

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