ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
2. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride IV to a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Give the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes.
- B. Dilute the medication before administration.
- C. Infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr.
- D. Administer the medication undiluted.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to infuse the medication at a rate of 10 mEq/hr. This slow infusion rate is crucial to prevent the development of hyperkalemia, a potentially dangerous condition. Option A is incorrect because giving the medication as a bolus over 10 minutes can lead to adverse effects. Option B is incorrect as potassium chloride does not necessarily need to be diluted before administration in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as administering the medication undiluted can also increase the risk of hyperkalemia.
4. What is the appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation in patients with suspected DVT. Encouraging ambulation can be beneficial in preventing DVT but is not the immediate intervention for a suspected case. Compression stockings are more for DVT prevention rather than treatment. Monitoring oxygen saturation is important in assessing respiratory function but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Continuous murmur.
- B. Absent peripheral pulses.
- C. Increased blood pressure.
- D. Bounding pulses.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A continuous murmur is a classic finding in a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus. This murmur is typically heard between the first and second heart sounds and throughout systole. Absent peripheral pulses (choice B) are not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus. Increased blood pressure (choice C) and bounding pulses (choice D) are not commonly seen with this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
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