Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. What is the appropriate diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Low protein diet
• B. High protein diet
• C. Low sodium diet
• D. Low potassium diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low protein diet is the appropriate choice for a patient with chronic kidney disease because it helps to reduce the buildup of waste products in the body, which the kidneys may struggle to filter out. High protein diets can put extra strain on the kidneys by increasing the workload to eliminate the byproducts of protein metabolism. While low sodium and low potassium diets can also be important for managing certain aspects of kidney disease, the primary focus should be on controlling protein intake to lessen the burden on the kidneys.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

4. During a change-of-shift report, a nurse is receiving information about an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

• A. The client's oxygen saturation is 95%
• B. The client's blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg
• C. The client has a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F)
• D. The client's heart rate is 88/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and stable. Reporting this information is crucial to monitor the client's condition postoperatively. Oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable, a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F) is normal, and a heart rate of 88/min is within the expected range for an adult female client, so these values do not raise concerns that require immediate reporting.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should weigh myself every morning.
• B. I should drink 2 liters of water each day.
• C. I should avoid all physical activity.
• D. I should take an extra dose of diuretic if I gain 2 pounds in a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A. Weighing daily is crucial for clients with heart failure to monitor fluid status since sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as some physical activity is encouraged for heart failure clients, tailored to their condition. Choice D is incorrect as adjusting medication doses should always be done under healthcare provider guidance rather than self-administration.

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