which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks pregnant and has cardiac disease. Which of the following positions should the nurse place the client in to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left lateral. Placing the client in the left lateral position helps promote optimal cardiac output during pregnancy by avoiding pressure on the vena cava. This position improves venous return to the heart and subsequently cardiac output. Option A, Semi-Fowler's position, may not be the best choice for a client with cardiac disease as it does not alleviate pressure on the vena cava. Option B, supine with head elevated, can also compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output. Option D, right lateral position, does not provide the same benefits as the left lateral position for cardiac output during pregnancy.

3. A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who is angry and throwing objects at staff members. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.

4. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An elevated serum creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to report before administering enalapril. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the initiation of enalapril therapy.

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