Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypocalcemia?

• A. Tingling in the fingers.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Positive Chvostek's sign.
• D. Positive Kernig's sign.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the fingers. Tingling in the fingers is a common sign of hypocalcemia, often seen after a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage or removal of the parathyroid glands which regulate calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia but is usually assessed as facial muscle twitching, not tingling in the fingers. Positive Kernig's sign is a test for meningitis, not related to hypocalcemia.

3. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid deep breathing exercises
• B. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
• C. Assist the client with ambulation every 2 hours
• D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Low back pain
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Tachycardia can indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction, a severe and life-threatening complication of blood transfusion. The nurse should report tachycardia immediately to prevent further complications. Low back pain, flushed skin, and headache are also important to monitor during a blood transfusion, but they are not as indicative of a severe transfusion reaction as tachycardia.

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