ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Hypertension
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients with hypothyroidism due to slowed metabolic processes. The other choices, such as bradycardia (slow heart rate), weight gain, and hypertension (high blood pressure) are not typically associated with hypothyroidism. Bradycardia can occur due to the decreased metabolic rate, but it is not a consistent finding. Weight gain is common but not universal, and hypertension is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?
- A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
- B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
- C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.
4. A client with heart failure is being educated by a nurse about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit your fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
- B. Increase your fluid intake to 5 liters per day.
- C. Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day.
- D. You can drink as much fluid as you want during meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day." Clients with heart failure are typically advised to limit their fluid intake to around 1 liter per day to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest fluid intakes that are higher than the recommended limit, which could lead to fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms.
5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Prepare for surgery
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.
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