Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. You may experience a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• D. You should avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of captopril, an ACE inhibitor, and should be included in the teaching. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can increase potassium levels, so there is no need to further increase potassium intake. Choice D is incorrect because captopril does not interact with grapefruit.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
• B. Administration of acetaminophen
• C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
• D. Withhold heparin IV infusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis is to withhold heparin IV infusion. Administering heparin is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis by preventing further clot formation. Positioning the affected extremity higher than the heart (Choice A) promotes venous return and reduces swelling. Acetaminophen (Choice B) can be given for pain relief. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice C) is contraindicated as it can dislodge a clot, leading to serious complications.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will limit my intake of protein to prevent kidney damage.
• B. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my headaches.
• C. I will monitor my blood glucose level before meals and at bedtime.
• D. I will reduce my intake of carbohydrates to manage my blood sugar.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime is crucial for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Option A is incorrect because limiting protein intake is not a primary focus for diabetes management. Option B is unrelated to diabetes management and focuses on pain relief. Option D mentions reducing carbohydrate intake, which is a common dietary recommendation for managing blood sugar levels, but it is not as specific as monitoring blood glucose levels at key times.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Blurred vision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

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