which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide
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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hours postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial in managing postoperative pain for the child. This helps control pain levels effectively, promoting comfort and aiding in the recovery process. Offering small amounts of clear liquids 6 hours following surgery may not be appropriate as the child may need time to recover from anesthesia. Giving cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hours is not indicated for postoperative care following appendicitis surgery. Applying a warm compress every 4 hours to the operative site may not be recommended as it can potentially interfere with the surgical wound healing process.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Raynaud's disease is a condition where the blood vessels narrow in response to cold or stress, leading to reduced blood flow to certain areas of the body, usually the fingers and toes. Stress management helps reduce triggers for Raynaud's disease by minimizing emotional stress, which can trigger vasospasms. Choice B is incorrect as maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, is recommended for individuals with Raynaud's disease to prevent triggering vasospasms. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not typically used to manage Raynaud's disease, as it can further constrict blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not a first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

4. When managing blood pressure at home, which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by a nurse for hypertension?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because sitting quietly for 5 minutes before measuring blood pressure ensures an accurate reading and helps monitor hypertension. Choice A is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is not ideal as blood pressure should be checked more frequently, preferably daily. Choice C is incorrect as stopping medication abruptly once blood pressure is normal can lead to rebound hypertension.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving TPN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Use sterile technique when changing the central line dressing.' When caring for a client receiving TPN, it is crucial to maintain aseptic technique to prevent infections. Changing the central line dressing with sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the client's system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because changing the TPN tubing every 72 hours, monitoring blood glucose, and monitoring urine output are important aspects of care but are not directly related to preventing infection in clients receiving TPN.

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