Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypotension.
• B. Weight loss.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypercalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with Cushing's syndrome, the nurse should expect hyperkalemia. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, which can lead to potassium retention and result in hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypertension is more common due to the effects of cortisol. Weight gain, rather than weight loss, is a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Hypercalcemia is not a typical finding in Cushing's syndrome; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to increased urinary calcium excretion.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
• B. Turn the client every 4 hours
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.

4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Measure the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
• C. Weigh the client weekly
• D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection in clients receiving parenteral nutrition. Measuring the client's blood glucose level every 6 hours is important for clients on insulin therapy or with diabetes, but it is not directly related to TPN administration. Weighing the client weekly is essential for monitoring fluid status and nutritional progress, but it is not specific to TPN care. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV line is incorrect because TPN solutions are hypertonic and can cause phlebitis or thrombosis if administered through a peripheral line; a central venous access is typically used for TPN administration.

5. A client has a chest tube. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 15 minutes every 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the drainage system below the client's chest.
• C. Strip the chest tube every 2 hours.
• D. Keep the collection device at the level of the client's chest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining the chest tube drainage system below the client's chest level is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent complications. Clamping the chest tube can lead to a tension pneumothorax, stripping the chest tube is an outdated practice that can cause damage to the tissues, and keeping the collection device at the level of the client's chest can impede proper drainage and lead to fluid accumulation.

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