ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
- B. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
- C. I should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- D. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum calcium 9.2 mg/dL
- C. Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
- D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated serum creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function. As kidney disease progresses, the kidneys are less able to filter waste products, leading to an increase in creatinine levels. Therefore, a high serum creatinine level of 2.5 mg/dL should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly signify worsening kidney function in this context.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
- C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
- D. Albumin 4 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.
4. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?
- A. Administer aspirin
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Prepare for surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.
5. How should fluid balance be monitored in a patient receiving diuretics?
- A. Monitor daily weight
- B. Monitor intake and output
- C. Check for edema
- D. Monitor blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: To assess fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics, monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method. This is because diuretics primarily affect fluid levels in the body, leading to changes in weight due to fluid loss. While monitoring intake and output, checking for edema, and monitoring blood pressure are important aspects of patient care, they do not provide as direct and accurate information about fluid balance as daily weight monitoring specifically in patients on diuretics.
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