Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
• B. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
• C. I should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
• D. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive sweating.
• B. Increased urinary frequency.
• C. Dry cough.
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of sertraline that the nurse should include in the teaching is excessive sweating. Sertraline is known to cause this side effect in some individuals. Increased urinary frequency (choice B) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of sertraline. Dry cough (choice C) and metallic taste in the mouth (choice D) are also not typically associated with sertraline use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the potential adverse effect of excessive sweating.

3. A nurse is caring for a client in labor who is receiving electronic fetal monitoring. The nurse notes early decelerations. Which of the following should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal hypoxia
• B. Abruptio placentae
• C. Post maturity
• D. Head compression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse notes early decelerations in electronic fetal monitoring, it indicates head compression, which is generally considered benign and not associated with fetal hypoxia, abruptio placentae, or post maturity. Early decelerations mirror the uterine contractions and are a normal response to fetal head compression during labor.

4. What is the first intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Administer oxygen
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock as it helps reverse the severe allergic reaction by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways for improved breathing. Oxygen (Choice B) can be administered after epinephrine to support oxygenation. Corticosteroids (Choice C) may be used to prevent a biphasic reaction but are not the initial intervention. Antihistamines (Choice D) can help with itching and hives but do not address the life-threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

• A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
• B. To increase appetite
• C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
• D. To treat allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

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