ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
- B. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
- C. I should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- D. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hyperthermia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.
3. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a central line to prevent infection?
- A. Change the dressing daily
- B. Monitor for redness
- C. Check the central line site every shift
- D. Flush the line with saline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Changing the central line dressing daily is crucial in preventing infection at the insertion site. This practice helps maintain a clean and sterile environment around the central line, reducing the risk of pathogens entering the bloodstream. Monitoring for redness (choice B) is important but may not directly prevent infection. Checking the central line site every shift (choice C) is essential for early detection of any issues but does not solely prevent infection. Flushing the line with saline (choice D) is a necessary procedure for maintaining central line patency but does not primarily prevent infection.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?
- A. Calcium carbonate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Epoetin alfa
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serous drainage on the dressing
- B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
- C. Heart rate of 62/min
- D. Left foot is cool to the touch
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.
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