ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.
- B. I should take this medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
- C. I should avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- D. I should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate should be taken with a full glass of water before breakfast to prevent esophageal irritation and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate is not associated with causing drowsiness. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate can be taken with or without food, so avoiding dairy products is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended time to remain upright after taking alendronate is 30 minutes to 1 hour, not just 30 minutes.
2. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will decrease my potassium levels.
- B. I should eat a banana every day to increase my potassium intake.
- C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience a cough.
- D. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Piloerection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education from a nurse on preventing long-term complications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
- B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- D. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.' This statement shows an understanding of the importance of foot care in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. Monitoring blood glucose levels (choice A) is crucial but not directly related to foot care. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important for overall health but does not specifically address preventing long-term complications of diabetes. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice D) is beneficial for managing blood sugar levels but does not directly address preventing foot complications.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?
- A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
- B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
- C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
- D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.
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