ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
- B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
- C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
- D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.
2. A client with osteoporosis should be encouraged to perform which of the following interventions as part of the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to increase calcium intake.
- B. Apply heat to the affected joints to reduce stiffness.
- C. Encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss.
- D. Limit fluid intake to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage weight-bearing exercises to prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Weight-bearing exercises help to strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) is important for bone health but is not the priority intervention for preventing bone loss in osteoporosis. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice B) may help with stiffness but does not address the underlying bone loss in osteoporosis. Limiting fluid intake (Choice D) is not relevant to managing osteoporosis and preventing bone loss.
3. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?
- A. Monitor the dressing site daily
- B. Check for redness and swelling
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Flush the central line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.
4. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a potassium supplement.
- B. Avoid foods that contain potassium.
- C. Limit your fluid intake while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium. Instructing the client to avoid foods high in potassium helps prevent hyperkalemia, a potential side effect of spironolactone. Choice A is incorrect because taking spironolactone with a potassium supplement can increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use. Choice D is also incorrect as spironolactone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving teaching from a nurse about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Soak your feet in warm water daily.
- B. Wear cotton socks.
- C. Use a heating pad to warm your feet.
- D. Trim toenails straight across.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to trim toenails straight across. This instruction is crucial for clients with diabetes to prevent ingrown toenails, which can lead to infection. Soaking feet in warm water daily can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Cotton socks are recommended, but the priority in foot care for diabetes is proper nail trimming. Using a heating pad can also pose a burn risk for individuals with reduced sensation in their feet.
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