Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea.
• B. Urinary retention.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

2. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?

• A. Methylergonovine
• B. Misoprostol
• C. Dinoprostone
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.

3. Which medication is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism?

• A. Methimazole
• B. Levothyroxine
• C. Propylthiouracil
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine, on the other hand, is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by providing synthetic thyroid hormone. Propylthiouracil is another medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by blocking the production of thyroid hormones. Aspirin is not used to treat hyperthyroidism, but rather for pain relief and reducing inflammation.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Platelet count
• C. INR
• D. WBC count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's INR to determine the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it reflects the blood's ability to clot properly. Warfarin is commonly used as an anticoagulant, and maintaining the INR within the therapeutic range ensures that the client is protected from both clotting and bleeding events. Monitoring serum calcium levels, platelet count, or WBC count is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

5. How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?

• A. Provide clear instructions on diet
• B. Explain the procedure in detail
• C. Ensure the patient has an empty stomach
• D. Give a bowel prep solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.

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