which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

2. A client who has a prescription for insulin glargine is talking to a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because insulin glargine should be stored in the refrigerator after opening to maintain its potency. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine should not be mixed with other insulins. Choice C is incorrect because insulin glargine is typically taken once a day. Choice D is incorrect because insulin glargine is usually taken regardless of blood glucose levels.

3. A client is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take for a client at risk for developing DVT is to apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. This intervention helps prevent venous stasis by promoting circulation and reducing the risk of DVT. Encouraging the client to remain on bed rest (Choice A) can actually increase the risk of DVT due to immobility. Massaging the client's legs every 4 hours (Choice B) can dislodge blood clots and is contraindicated in DVT prevention. While administering anticoagulants as prescribed (Choice D) is a treatment for DVT, it is not a preventive measure for a client at risk.

4. What is the appropriate action for a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic reactions as it helps reverse the symptoms rapidly by constricting blood vessels, increasing heart rate, and opening airways. Antihistamines (Choice B) may help with mild allergic reactions but are not effective for severe cases. Corticosteroids (Choice C) are used to reduce inflammation and are typically not the first-line treatment for acute severe allergic reactions. Administering oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary to support breathing in severe cases, but epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction symptoms.

5. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.

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