Nursing Elites

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

2. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to decreased blood clotting ability. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can lead to bleeding in thrombocytopenic clients. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is important for immunocompromised clients to prevent exposure to pathogens but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is a precaution to reduce the risk of infection in immunocompromised clients but does not directly address the complications of thrombocytopenia.

4. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take with a glass of milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• C. Take on an empty stomach to increase absorption.
• D. Take with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.

5. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about client advocacy by a nurse. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will intervene if there is a conflict between a client and their provider.
• B. I should not advocate for a client unless they are able to ask me themselves.
• C. I will inform a client that their family should help make their health care decisions.
• D. I believe the best health care decision is for the provider to decide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because advocating for a client should not be dependent on the client's ability to ask for it personally. Advocacy is crucial to ensure clients' rights are upheld, especially when they are unable to express their wishes. Choice A is incorrect as intervening in a conflict may not always be advocating for the client's best interests. Choice C is incorrect because the family should not make health care decisions for the client without their input. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of client autonomy and involvement in decision-making.

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