which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow wound drainage can indicate infection, especially 36 hours postoperative, and should be reported to the provider promptly. Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing, and a heart rate of 92/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the yellow wound drainage as it may require immediate intervention.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

4. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.

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