a nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following results indicates that the medication is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam RN

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the prescription for doxazosin with a client. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Doxazosin can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness and falls if the client rises quickly from a seated position. Instructing the client to rise slowly when sitting up from bed helps prevent these adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because doxazosin does not directly relate to caloric intake, dietary fiber, or a specific time of day for administration.

3. A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change of shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should plan to assess the client placed in restraints due to aggressive behavior first. Clients in restraints require immediate attention and frequent monitoring for safety. While weight loss, medication administration, and ECT treatment are important, the client in restraints is in a critical situation that requires immediate assessment and intervention.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When administering an intramuscular injection, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the muscle tissue. Option B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Option C is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for intramuscular injections. Option D is incorrect as massaging the site after an intramuscular injection can cause tissue damage or interfere with the absorption of the medication.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.

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