ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. How should a healthcare professional educate a patient on the use of an incentive spirometer?
- A. Instruct the patient to take deep breaths
- B. Instruct the patient to cough forcefully
- C. Instruct the patient to blow into the spirometer
- D. Instruct the patient to use the spirometer every hour
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the patient to use the spirometer every hour is crucial for optimal lung expansion and to prevent postoperative pulmonary complications. This regular use helps to keep the lungs clear and maintain their capacity. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because deep breathing, forceful coughing, and blowing into the spirometer do not specifically address the proper use of the incentive spirometer, which is essential for postoperative respiratory recovery.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Heart rate of 94/min
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
3. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Potassium
- B. PT/INR
- C. Sodium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
- B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
- C. Lie down after eating.
- D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.
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