ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is educating a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will monitor my blood glucose levels every morning.
- B. I will stop taking my insulin if my blood glucose level is below 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will take my insulin as prescribed, even if I am feeling well.
- D. I will eat more simple carbohydrates if my blood glucose level is low.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because consuming more simple carbohydrates when blood glucose levels are low can cause a rapid spike in blood sugar levels, leading to potential complications. Clients with type 2 diabetes should eat complex carbohydrates or foods that help stabilize blood sugar levels when experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate understanding of monitoring blood glucose levels regularly, not stopping insulin without consulting a healthcare provider, and adhering to insulin therapy even when feeling well, which are all appropriate actions for managing diabetes.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse notes that the client's indwelling urinary catheter has not drained in the past hour. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- B. Reposition the catheter.
- C. Notify the provider.
- D. Increase the rate of the continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should irrigate the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride to help relieve any obstruction and ensure proper urinary drainage following a TURP. Repositioning the catheter may not address the underlying issue of obstruction. Notifying the provider should be done after attempting to resolve the drainage issue. Increasing the rate of continuous bladder irrigation is not the initial intervention for a catheter that is not draining.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips.
- B. Red, swollen gums.
- C. White patches on the tongue.
- D. Pale, dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
4. A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed flat.
- B. Have the client tuck their chin while swallowing.
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids.
- D. Place the food on the unaffected side of the mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
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