a nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke which of the following intervent
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.

2. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

4. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of a new prescription of prednisone to a client who has COPD. The healthcare professional should not concentrate on which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering prednisone, a corticosteroid medication, to a client with COPD, the healthcare professional should be aware of potential adverse effects. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone use. The correct adverse effects to monitor for include hypokalemia, fluid retention, and gastrointestinal issues like black, tarry stools due to potential gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not concentrate on tachycardia but should focus on the other listed adverse effects when administering prednisone to a client with COPD.

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