ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
2. A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the physician
- B. Administer the medication and notify the physician
- C. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
- D. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the appearance of a rash after administering penicillin, even in a patient with no known allergies, is concerning for a potential allergic reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to withhold the medication and notify the physician. This precaution is necessary to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing an adverse reaction, as allergic reactions can range from mild to severe and require immediate intervention.
3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
- B. Using a water or air mattress
- C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
- D. Providing meticulous skin care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.
4. Which technique in physical examination is used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree?
- A. Palpation
- B. Auscultation
- C. Inspection
- D. Percussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Auscultation. Auscultation is a technique in physical examination used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree. During auscultation, healthcare providers listen to lung sounds using a stethoscope to detect abnormalities such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can indicate conditions affecting the airways or lungs. Palpation (Choice A) involves feeling the body for abnormalities, Inspection (Choice C) involves visual examination, and Percussion (Choice D) involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help in assessing underlying structures, but they are not directly used to assess air movement through the tracheobronchial tree.
5. What is the best description of resonance?
- A. Sounds created by air-filled structures
- B. Short, high-pitched, and thudding
- C. Moderately loud with a musical quality
- D. Drum-like
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.
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