ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
2. A client is to receive thrombolytic therapy. Which of the following factors should be recognized as a contraindication to the therapy?
- A. Hip arthroplasty 2 weeks ago
- B. Elevated sedimentation rate
- C. Incident of exercise-induced asthma 1 week ago
- D. Elevated platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. Hip arthroplasty (joint replacement surgery) performed recently is a contraindication to thrombolytic therapy due to the risk of bleeding. Elevated sedimentation rate, exercise-induced asthma, and elevated platelet count are not contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.
3. A caregiver is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The caregiver asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?
- A. Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
- B. Your baby needs an IV because her fontanels are bulging
- C. Your baby needs an IV because she is breathing slower than normal
- D. Your baby needs an IV because her heart rate is decreasing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears.' In infants, the inability to produce tears is a sign of severe dehydration. This is a crucial indication for the need for intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to rehydrate the infant. While the other options may also be symptoms of dehydration, the absence of tears is a more direct and specific indicator requiring immediate attention and intervention.
4. What is the initial technique used when examining a client's abdomen?
- A. Palpation
- B. Auscultation
- C. Percussion
- D. Inspection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When examining a client's abdomen, the initial technique used is inspection. Inspection involves visually assessing the abdomen for any abnormalities, such as distention, scars, or rashes. This step allows the healthcare provider to gather valuable information before proceeding to other examination techniques like palpation, auscultation, and percussion. Palpation, auscultation, and percussion are secondary techniques used after visual inspection to further assess the abdomen for specific findings. Palpation involves feeling the abdomen for masses or tenderness, auscultation is listening for bowel sounds, and percussion is tapping the abdomen to assess for areas of dullness or resonance.
5. A client has chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following dietary recommendations should be made?
- A. Coffee with creamer
- B. Lettuce with sliced avocados
- C. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic pancreatitis requires a low-fat diet to reduce stress on the pancreas. Broiled skinless chicken breast with brown rice is a suitable option as it is low in fat. Coffee with creamer and lettuce with sliced avocados are not recommended for individuals with chronic pancreatitis due to their fat content. Choosing options high in fat can exacerbate symptoms and increase the workload on the pancreas, worsening the condition.
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