Nursing Elites

1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?

• A. 15
• B. 60
• C. 10
• D. 30

Correct answer: B

Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.

2. A healthcare professional is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the professional demonstrating?

• A. Quality improvement
• B. Patient-centered care
• C. Evidence-based practice
• D. Informatics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the competency of quality improvement, which focuses on identifying system errors and implementing changes to improve patient outcomes and safety. Patient-centered care emphasizes involving patients in their care decisions, evidence-based practice involves integrating research and clinical expertise, and informatics involves using technology to improve patient care. In this scenario, the emphasis is on the process of improving quality and safety related to the incident.

3. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?

• A. Parkinson’s disease
• B. Multiple sclerosis
• C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
• D. Alzheimer’s disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Lie on their left side.
• B. Use the incentive spirometer.
• C. Cough at regular intervals.
• D. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.

5. What is another name for the knee-chest position?

• A. Genu-dorsal
• B. Genu-pectoral
• C. Lithotomy
• D. Sim’s

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The knee-chest position is correctly identified as the genu-pectoral position. In this position, a person rests on their knees and chest with the abdomen raised and the head turned to one side. This position is commonly used in medical examinations and procedures involving the rectal or pelvic areas, allowing for better visualization and access. Choice A, 'Genu-dorsal,' is incorrect as it does not refer to the knee-chest position. Choice C, 'Lithotomy,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient is lying on their back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, commonly used during childbirth or certain surgeries. Choice D, 'Sim’s,' is incorrect as it refers to a position where the patient lies on their left side with the right knee and thigh drawn up with the left arm placed along the back.

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