ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
2. When caring for a client who speaks a language different from their own, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Request an interpreter of a different sex from the client.
- B. Request a family member or friend to interpret information for the client.
- C. Direct attention toward the interpreter when speaking to the client.
- D. Review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client who speaks a different language, it is essential for the nurse to review the facility policy about the use of an interpreter. Using a professional interpreter ensures accurate communication and protects the client's confidentiality. Requesting an interpreter of a specific sex or relying on family members or friends can lead to miscommunication or breaches of confidentiality. Directing attention towards the interpreter helps facilitate communication but does not address the need for a professional interpreter as per facility policy.
3. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.
4. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?
- A. Sims left lateral
- B. Dorsal Recumbent
- C. Supine
- D. Prone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.
5. Which of the following is the correct meaning of CBR?
- A. Cardiac Board Room
- B. Complete Bathroom
- C. Complete Bed Rest
- D. Complete Board Room
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In medical terminology, 'CBR' stands for Complete Bed Rest. This term indicates the necessity for a patient to remain in bed without engaging in any physical activities beyond what is essential for daily living, to aid in the recovery process or to prevent further health complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the medical meaning of CBR.
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