ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
2. A client has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while he is sitting.
- B. Provide total care in assisting with the client's ADLs.
- C. Encourage mobility and avoid bed rest.
- D. Facilitate feeding by placing food on the left side of the client's mouth when ready to eat.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and assists in maintaining proper positioning and alignment. This intervention is crucial to prevent complications associated with immobility. Providing total care in ADLs may hinder the client's independence and recovery. Encouraging mobility is essential in preventing complications of immobility. Facilitating feeding by placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth helps reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia.
3. Which of the following interventions is considered the most effective form of universal precautions?
- A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes
- B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container
- C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections
- D. Follow enteric precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most effective form of universal precautions is to discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container. This practice minimizes the risk of needle-stick injuries, which are a significant concern when dealing with used needles. By safely disposing of uncapped needles, healthcare providers can protect themselves and others from potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens.
4. How many drops are equivalent to 1 tsp?
- A. 15
- B. 60
- C. 10
- D. 30
Correct answer: B
Rationale: 1 teaspoon (tsp) is equivalent to approximately 60 drops. Drops and teaspoons vary in volume and size, affecting the conversion ratio. Choice A (15 drops) is incorrect as it's a common misconception. Choice C (10 drops) and Choice D (30 drops) do not align with the standard conversion of 1 tsp to 60 drops.
5. When preparing to administer an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue, what is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication?
- A. Use a small gauge needle
- B. Apply ice on the injection site
- C. Administer at a 45° angle
- D. Use the Z-track technique
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Z-track technique is the best action to prevent tracking of the medication when administering an IM injection that is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue. This technique involves pulling the skin to the side before administering the injection and then releasing the skin after the injection. By doing so, a zig-zag pathway is created, preventing the medication from leaking into the subcutaneous tissue and reducing irritation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a small gauge needle may not prevent tracking of the medication. Applying ice on the injection site or administering at a 45° angle does not specifically address preventing tracking of the medication in cases where the injection is irritating to the subcutaneous tissue.
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