ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
2. A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can substitute one medication for another if I run out because they all fight infection.
- B. I will wash my hands each time I cough.
- C. I am glad I don't have to have any more sputum specimens.
- D. I don't need to worry about where I go once I start taking my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.
3. When caring for a client in the advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), which of the following referrals is the nurse's priority?
- A. Psychologist
- B. Social worker
- C. Occupational therapist
- D. Speech-language pathologist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the advanced stage of ALS, speech and swallowing difficulties become significant. As a result, the priority referral for the nurse would be a speech-language pathologist. This professional can assist in managing communication challenges and provide strategies to address swallowing issues, ensuring the client's safety and quality of life.
4. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?
- A. Gtt.
- B. Gtts.
- C. Dp.
- D. Dr.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.
5. The healthcare professional prepares to administer buccal medication. The medicine should be placed...
- A. On the client's skin
- B. Between the client's cheeks and gums
- C. Under the client's tongue
- D. On the client's conjunctiva
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buccal medication is administered by placing it between the client's cheeks and gums. This route allows for the medication to be absorbed through the mucous membranes in the mouth, providing a rapid onset of action compared to oral ingestion. Placing the medication under the tongue (sublingual) allows for absorption through the sublingual mucosa, not the buccal mucosa. Placing medication on the skin or the conjunctiva is not appropriate for buccal administration.
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