ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. When administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client, for which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L.
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/mL
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring the digoxin level is crucial as it helps determine the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity. A digoxin level of 1 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range. However, levels above this range can lead to toxicity, causing adverse effects like nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and dysrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should report a digoxin level of 1 ng/mL to the provider for further evaluation and potential dose adjustment.
2. If a patient's blood pressure is 150/96, what is his pulse pressure?
- A. 54
- B. 96
- C. 150
- D. 246
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulse pressure is calculated by subtracting the diastolic pressure from the systolic pressure. In this case, the systolic pressure is 150 and the diastolic pressure is 96. Therefore, the pulse pressure is 150 - 96 = 54. Pulse pressure represents the force generated by the heart with each contraction and is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.
3. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?
- A. Hemoglobinuria
- B. Chest pain
- C. Urticaria
- D. Distended neck veins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.
4. A client experiencing acute dyspnea and diaphoresis reports anxiety and difficulty breathing. Vital signs include HR 117/min, respirations 38/min, temperature 38.4 C (101.2 F), and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Notify the provider.
- B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
- C. Administer oxygen therapy.
- D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute dyspnea, diaphoresis, tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and hypotension, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels and stabilize the client's condition. This intervention takes precedence over notifying the provider, administering heparin, or obtaining a CT scan, as oxygen therapy addresses the client's immediate need for respiratory support.
5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider on the purpose of taking a bronchodilator. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''This medication can decrease my immune response.''
- B. ''I take this medication to prevent asthma attacks.''
- C. ''I need to take this medication with food.''
- D. ''This medication has a slow onset to treat my symptoms.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I take this medication to prevent asthma attacks.' Bronchodilators are commonly used to relieve bronchospasm in conditions such as asthma. This medication helps to dilate the airways, making it easier to breathe and preventing asthma attacks. The other options are incorrect: option A is inaccurate as bronchodilators do not decrease immune responses, option C is incorrect as bronchodilators are typically taken on an empty stomach for better absorption, and option D is false as bronchodilators have a rapid onset to provide quick relief of symptoms.
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