Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing a seizure. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a tongue depressor in the client's mouth
• B. Loosen tight clothing around the client
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Administer 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a seizure, it is essential to loosen tight clothing around the client to prevent injury and promote adequate ventilation. Placing any objects, like a tongue depressor, in the client's mouth can lead to airway obstruction or injury. Restraining the client's arms and legs can exacerbate the situation by increasing muscle rigidity and potentially causing injury. Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is not typically indicated during a seizure unless respiratory distress is present.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• C. Take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain.
• D. Swallow the tablet whole for the best effect.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three doses, for chest pain. This dosing regimen helps relieve chest pain associated with angina by promoting vasodilation. Option A is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue, not swallowed with water. Option B is incorrect because taking nitroglycerin with food may decrease its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are meant to be dissolved under the tongue, not swallowed whole.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
• D. Serosanguineous wound drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Elevate the client's legs while in bed.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Maintain bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively.
• D. Ambulate the client on the first postoperative day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ambulating the client on the first postoperative day is crucial to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and aid in the recovery process. Elevating the legs while in bed can help with circulation but is not as effective in preventing complications related to immobility post-surgery. Repositioning every 2 hours is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address postoperative care. Maintaining bed rest for the first 24 hours postoperatively can increase the risk of complications associated with immobility, making early ambulation a more appropriate intervention.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid taking ibuprofen for my pain.
• B. I will avoid eating spicy foods.
• C. I will limit my intake of dairy products.
• D. I will take my antacids 30 minutes before meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with peptic ulcer disease should avoid spicy foods as they can exacerbate symptoms and delay healing. Ibuprofen can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining, so it should be avoided. While limiting dairy products may be beneficial for some individuals with lactose intolerance, it is not a specific recommendation for peptic ulcer disease. Taking antacids before meals can help neutralize stomach acid; however, the timing may vary depending on the type of antacid, so there is no universal rule of taking antacids 30 minutes before meals. Choice A is incorrect because the client should avoid taking ibuprofen due to its potential to worsen peptic ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between dairy product intake and peptic ulcer disease. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of antacid administration can vary and should be guided by specific recommendations.

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