a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports intimate partner violence which of the following interventions is the nurses pr
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports intimate partner violence. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to develop a safety plan with the client. In cases of intimate partner violence, the priority is to ensure the client's immediate safety. While referring the client to a community support group (choice B) and determining if the client has any injuries (choice C) are important interventions, ensuring the client's safety through a safety plan takes precedence. Contacting the client's family about the incident (choice D) may not be appropriate as it can further endanger the client.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

3. A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering information about respite care is a therapeutic response that supports the caregiver. Choice B suggests a quick fix with sleeping pills without addressing the underlying issue of caregiver stress. Choice C, though empathetic, does not offer practical assistance or support. Choice D, while positive, does not address the son's need for rest and support.

4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.

5. A nurse manager is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the following guidelines should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When updating protocols for the use of belt restraints, it is essential to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation helps ensure the client's safety and allows for timely assessment of the need for continued restraint use. Choice A is incorrect because restraints should be removed and reassessed more frequently than every 4 hours. Choice C is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the bed's side rails due to entrapment risks. Choice D is also incorrect as restraints should not be used as needed (PRN) but rather based on a specific prescription and assessment indicating the need for restraint use.

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