ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
- B. Turn the client every 4 hours
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
- D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a closed head injury and has an intraventricular catheter. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to reduce the risk for infection?
- A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees.
- B. Administer IV antibiotics prophylactically.
- C. Change the catheter insertion site every 24 hours.
- D. Monitor the insertion site for redness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the insertion site for redness. This intervention helps detect signs of infection early in clients with intraventricular catheters. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees is important for managing intracranial pressure but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Administering IV antibiotics prophylactically is not recommended as a routine practice due to the risk of antibiotic resistance and should only be done based on culture results. Changing the catheter insertion site every 24 hours is unnecessary and increases the risk of introducing new pathogens.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- B. Heart rate of 88/min
- C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Hematocrit 42%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Heart rate of 88/min.' A heart rate of 88/min in a postoperative client can be an early sign of bleeding or other complications. It is essential to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate immediate concern. A blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg is normal, urinary output of 30 mL/hr may be adequate depending on the client's fluid status, and a hematocrit of 42% is within the acceptable range for a postoperative client. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
- C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
- D. Administer the medication using a filter needle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.
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