a nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism the nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the fol
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should identify the effectiveness of the treatment by assessing which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Client-reported improvement in anxiety is an indication of effective treatment for pulmonary embolism. Choice A is incorrect as increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate complications or lack of improvement. Choice C is incorrect as diminished breath sounds auscultated unilaterally may suggest a localized lung issue and not necessarily reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG results provided do not specifically indicate the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism.

2. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

3. A client has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Notify your provider if you experience visual disturbances.' Visual disturbances can indicate digoxin toxicity, so it is essential for clients taking digoxin to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider. Option A is incorrect because the timing of digoxin administration is crucial, usually in the morning. Option B is inaccurate because digoxin should not be taken with milk as it can affect its absorption. Option D is not directly associated with digoxin use and should not be the priority instruction for a client on this medication.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV fluid bolus of 500 mL over 4 hours to a client who is dehydrated. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting the IV pump to 125 mL/hr ensures the correct infusion rate for delivering 500 mL over 4 hours. To calculate the mL/hr rate, divide the total volume to be infused (500 mL) by the total time for infusion (4 hours): 500 mL / 4 hours = 125 mL/hr. Choice A (75 mL/hr) is too low and would result in an insufficient infusion rate, potentially delaying fluid resuscitation. Choice B (100 mL/hr) would also be too low and not deliver the fluid within the specified time frame. Choice D (150 mL/hr) is too high and would infuse the fluid too quickly, potentially causing fluid overload and complications.

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