a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test which of the following instructions sh
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ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A nonstress test measures the fetal heart's response to movement, helping to assess fetal well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the duration of the test can vary, and it is not always precisely 30 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as drinking water is not necessary for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as having a full bladder is not required for this test.

2. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education on medication is crucial when managing a patient with non-compliance to hypertension medication. By educating the patient on the importance of adherence, potential side effects, and the impact of uncontrolled hypertension, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient's understanding and compliance. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but should not be the first step. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) without exploring reasons for non-compliance and providing education can worsen the patient's condition. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (Choice D) is important but should be accompanied by interventions to address non-compliance in the interim.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

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