Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
• C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
• D. Mild headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider recommend?

• A. Carrots
• B. Whole grains
• C. Lean beef
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Lean beef.' Lean beef is a good source of protein, which is essential for a balanced diet. While carrots and bananas are healthy food choices, they are not specifically recommended for clients with hypertension. Whole grains are a better alternative to refined grains for individuals with hypertension, but lean beef is a more suitable recommendation due to its protein content.

3. A client requires seclusion to prevent harm to others on the unit. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Offer fluids every 2 hours.
• B. Document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion.
• C. Discuss the client's inappropriate behavior prior to seclusion.
• D. Assess the client's behavior every hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the client's behavior prior to being placed in seclusion. Documenting the behavior is crucial as it ensures that the decision to use seclusion is based on appropriate justifications and helps in monitoring the client's progress and response to the intervention. Offering fluids every 2 hours (Choice A) is not directly related to the need for seclusion. Discussing the client's behavior prior to seclusion (Choice C) may not be appropriate at the moment when immediate action is required to prevent harm. Assessing the client's behavior every hour (Choice D) is important but not as immediate as documenting the behavior prior to seclusion.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching regarding a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication until my symptoms are gone.
• B. I will take this medication until it is finished.
• C. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I will take this medication with milk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of antibiotics as prescribed, even if symptoms improve. This helps to ensure that the infection is fully treated and reduces the risk of developing antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication when symptoms disappear can lead to incomplete treatment. Choice C is incorrect as amoxicillin can be taken with or without food. Choice D is incorrect because taking amoxicillin with milk can decrease its absorption.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication over 60 minutes
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level during administration
• C. Infuse the medication rapidly to reduce the risk of infection
• D. Administer the medication using a filter needle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to administer the medication over 60 minutes. This is important because administering vancomycin over 60 minutes helps prevent red man syndrome, a reaction that can occur with rapid infusion. Monitoring the client's blood glucose level (Choice B) is unrelated to vancomycin administration. Infusing the medication rapidly (Choice C) is incorrect and can lead to adverse reactions. Administering the medication using a filter needle (Choice D) is unnecessary for vancomycin administration.

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