a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia which of the following findings should the nu
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients taking clopidogrel should take the medication with a full glass of water to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to avoid foods high in potassium with clopidogrel. Choice B is unrelated to the medication's administration. Choice D is a duplication of choice C, providing no additional information.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (choice A) is important but not the next immediate action. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (choice C) is important but not the priority at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions (choice D) is not the priority action in this scenario.

5. A client with heart failure is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid overload?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with heart failure, decreased urinary output is a classic sign of fluid overload. The kidneys try to compensate for the increased volume by reducing urine output, leading to fluid retention. A dry, hacking cough (choice A) is more indicative of heart failure complications like pulmonary edema. Bounding peripheral pulses (choice B) are a sign of increased volume, but not specifically fluid overload. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours (choice D) is not indicative of fluid overload but rather rapid fluid loss.

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