Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 30 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg
• B. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities
• C. Weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week
• D. Mild headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb) in 1 week can indicate worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention, which can lead to serious complications. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further assessment and intervention. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is high but may not be an immediate concern for a client with preeclampsia at 30 weeks. 1+ pitting edema in the lower extremities is common in pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, and may not be a significant finding in isolation. A mild headache can be a common symptom in pregnancy and may not be indicative of worsening preeclampsia unless accompanied by other concerning signs.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain?

• A. Administer aspirin
• B. Administer nitroglycerin
• C. Reposition the patient
• D. Prepare for surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is a priority intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain because it helps reduce the risk of further clot formation and improves oxygenation. Aspirin is commonly used in the initial management of suspected cardiac chest pain. Administering nitroglycerin can follow aspirin administration to help with vasodilation. Repositioning the patient or preparing for surgery are not the primary interventions for chest pain presentation.

3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

• A. Administer glucagon
• B. Provide oral glucose
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Monitor blood sugar levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing oral glucose is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia. Oral glucose helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, making it the preferred treatment for mild hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon (Choice A) is usually reserved for severe cases when the patient cannot take anything by mouth. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice D) is important but providing glucose is the immediate priority to treat hypoglycemia.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. Consume foods high in bran fiber.
• B. Increase intake of milk products.
• C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in gluten.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber helps alleviate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome by promoting regular bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who are lactose intolerant. Choice C is incorrect as fructose corn syrup may worsen symptoms due to its high fructose content, which can be poorly absorbed in some individuals with irritable bowel syndrome. Choice D is incorrect as increasing foods high in gluten may be problematic for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome who have gluten sensitivity or celiac disease.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

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