ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
- B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
- C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
- D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum calcium.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so serum potassium should be monitored to evaluate its effectiveness. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect. Serum sodium, serum calcium, and serum glucose levels are not directly affected by spironolactone and would not provide an accurate assessment of the medication's effectiveness.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing education material for a client. Which technique should the healthcare provider use in creating the material?
- A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
- B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
- C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
- D. Use words with three or four syllables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a 7th-grade reading level is the most effective technique when creating education material for clients because it ensures that the content is easily understood by a wide range of individuals. Option A, emphasizing important information with bold lettering, may help draw attention but doesn't guarantee comprehension. Option C, avoiding cartoons, is not necessarily a universal rule and can sometimes make material more engaging. Option D, using words with three or four syllables, can make the material more complex and harder to understand, defeating the purpose of effective communication in education material.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?
- A. Positive Trousseau's sign.
- B. Hyperactive reflexes.
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
- D. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
- B. 1+ pitting edema
- C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.
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