Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
• B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
• C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
• D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mucous membranes
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sodium level of 125 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which can lead to hypotension. Hyponatremia is associated with signs such as confusion and weakness, rather than increased appetite, dry mucous membranes, or hyperreflexia. Therefore, the nurse should expect hypotension as a finding in a client with a sodium level of 125 mEq/L.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Ataxia.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Insomnia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.

4. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Administer 0.9% sodium chloride with the TPN.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Weigh the client every 72 hours.
• D. Flush the TPN line with heparin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.

5. A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Administer the feeding at room temperature.
• D. Flush the feeding tube with 20 mL of water every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

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