Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving gentamicin for a wound infection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 25 mg/dL
• B. Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
• C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL
• D. White blood cell (WBC) count 5,000/mm3

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated BUN level indicates possible nephrotoxicity, which is a side effect of gentamicin and should be reported. Elevated serum creatinine and WBC count are not specifically related to gentamicin therapy. Normal serum glucose levels are also within the expected range.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had a stroke. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid taking anticoagulant medication.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1,000 mL per day.
• C. Avoid isometric exercises during recovery.
• D. Perform range-of-motion exercises daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Perform range-of-motion exercises daily. After a stroke, performing range-of-motion exercises can help prevent complications such as joint stiffness and contractures. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Anticoagulant medications are often prescribed to prevent blood clots after a stroke, fluid intake should be adequate unless indicated otherwise, and isometric exercises can be beneficial during recovery.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
• C. Albumin 4 g/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.2 mEq/L
• D. Chloride 100 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

5. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

• A. Spinach
• B. Peanut butter
• C. Ground beef
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.

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