Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
• B. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
• C. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for cord care is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of when the cord stump falls off can vary, usually between 1-3 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as a black cord stump can be a normal part of the healing process, so it is unnecessary to contact the provider for this reason. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily is not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a patient with shortness of breath?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the patient
• C. Check oxygen saturation
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy aims to improve oxygenation levels quickly, addressing the underlying cause of the symptom. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in this scenario to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the body.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

• A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
• B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
• C. BUN 20 mg/dL
• D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

5. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

Similar Questions