ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Change positions slowly.
- D. Take this medication with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Furosemide is to change positions slowly. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to orthostatic hypotension, causing dizziness and increasing the risk of falls. By advising the client to change positions slowly, the nurse helps prevent these potential adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Furosemide at bedtime (Choice A) is not necessary as it can be taken at any time of the day. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is more relevant for clients taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Taking Furosemide with meals (Choice D) may lead to increased diuretic effects and frequent urination.
2. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
- C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
- D. Decreased polyuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.
3. When completing a nursing history for a client taking Simvastatin, which of the following disorders should the nurse identify as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?
- A. History of severe constipation
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Active hepatitis C
- D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in clients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, particularly if they are already on a statin like simvastatin. Hepatitis C is a liver condition that can be exacerbated by Ezetimibe, leading to potential complications. Therefore, the nurse should identify active hepatitis C as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the contraindication of Ezetimibe in clients taking Simvastatin.
4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.
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