ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the healthcare professional?
- A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
- B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
- C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
- D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing immediate gastric lavage is the appropriate action for a client with severe lithium toxicity, indicated by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Gastric lavage can help reduce the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed drug from the stomach.
2. While assessing a client taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation, which of the following findings is indicative of Amiodarone toxicity?
- A. Light yellow urine
- B. Report of tinnitus
- C. Productive cough
- D. Blue-gray skin discoloration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity, which is a known adverse effect of Amiodarone. Clients on Amiodarone should be monitored for signs of pulmonary toxicity such as cough, dyspnea, and chest pain. This is important to detect early and prevent serious complications. The other options are not typically associated with Amiodarone toxicity. Light yellow urine is not a common sign, tinnitus is more related to ear problems, and blue-gray skin discoloration is not a recognized symptom of Amiodarone toxicity.
3. A client has a new prescription for Filgrastim to treat neutropenia. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.
- B. This medication will help reduce your risk of infection.
- C. This medication will help improve your red blood cell count.
- D. This medication will help increase your platelet count.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that 'This medication will help increase your white blood cell count.' Filgrastim is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to increase the white blood cell count. This increase in white blood cells helps reduce the risk of infections in clients with neutropenia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Filgrastim specifically targets white blood cells, not red blood cells or platelets.
4. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?
- A. Prone
- B. On the nonoperative side
- C. Sims'
- D. Semi-Fowler's
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.
5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
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