ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.
2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Canned soup.
- B. Lean cuts of beef.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Baked chicken.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Canned soup. Canned soups are usually high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure and should be avoided by clients with hypertension. Lean cuts of beef, bananas, and baked chicken are healthier options for individuals with hypertension as they are lower in sodium and can be included in a balanced diet to manage blood pressure levels.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
- B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- C. Heart rate of 88/min
- D. Oxygen saturation of 94%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 88/min is a normal finding; therefore, it does not require immediate reporting to the provider. The respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 94% are also within normal ranges and do not indicate any immediate concerns. However, a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can be a serious issue and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.
4. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
- B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
- C. Lie down after eating.
- D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. WBC 4,500/mm3
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
- D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.
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