ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL.
- B. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.
- C. Heart rate of 110/min.
- D. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 110/min is elevated and may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication following a thyroidectomy. Elevated heart rate can be a sign of hypocalcemia due to the close relationship between calcium levels and cardiac function. Option A, serum calcium level of 8 mg/dL, is within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and would not be a cause for concern post-thyroidectomy. Option B, urine output of 60 mL/hr, is within the normal range for urine output and not typically a priority finding post-thyroidectomy. Option D, a temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F), is slightly elevated but not a critical finding post-thyroidectomy unless accompanied by other symptoms.
3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about lifestyle changes to manage the condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid eating small, frequent meals.
- B. Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.
- C. Lie down after eating.
- D. Avoid drinking fluids with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sleep with the head of your bed elevated.' Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce acid reflux by keeping the head higher than the stomach, preventing stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding eating small, frequent meals, lying down after eating, and drinking fluids with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms by increasing stomach acid production and promoting acid reflux.
4. What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Administer anticoagulants
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Apply compression stockings
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.
5. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
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