ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
- B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
- C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
- D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.
2. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
- D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your caloric intake by 600 calories per day.
- B. You should increase your caloric intake by 300 calories per day.
- C. You should maintain your prepregnancy caloric intake during the first trimester.
- D. You should increase your caloric intake by 150 calories per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.
4. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath?
- A. Supine position
- B. Semi-Fowler's position
- C. Trendelenburg position
- D. Prone position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best position for a patient experiencing shortness of breath is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Supine position (lying flat on the back) may worsen breathing difficulties by reducing lung capacity. The Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is not recommended for patients with shortness of breath as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The Prone position (lying face down) is also not suitable for patients experiencing shortness of breath as it may further restrict breathing.
5. A client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- B. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Blood glucose 90 mg/dL
- D. Urine ketones present
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration and inadequate glucose control in clients with hyperemesis gravidarum. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly correlate with the condition of hyperemesis gravidarum. Therefore, they are not the priority values to report in this scenario.
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