Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
• B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
• C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
• D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.

2. A nurse in a mental health unit is planning room assignments for four clients. Which of the following clients should be closest to the nurse's station?

• A. A client who has an anxiety disorder and is experiencing moderate anxiety.
• B. A client who has somatic symptom disorder and reports chronic pain.
• C. A client who has depressive disorder and reports feeling hopeless.
• D. A client who has bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with bipolar disorder and impaired social interactions should be placed closest to the nurse's station for closer monitoring. Clients with bipolar disorder may experience mood swings, including manic episodes that can lead to impulsive behaviors or aggression. Placing such a client near the nurse's station allows for quick intervention and monitoring of their social interactions, especially if they are impaired. The other options, such as anxiety disorder, somatic symptom disorder, and depressive disorder, do not inherently require immediate proximity to the nurse's station based on the information provided.

3. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

• A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
• B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
• C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
• D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Acrocyanosis
• B. Vernix caseosa
• C. A respiratory rate of 50/min
• D. Heart rate of 160/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, a heart rate of 160/min. A heart rate of 160/min in a newborn exceeds the normal range and could indicate potential issues that need further evaluation by the provider. Acrocyanosis (choice A) is a common finding in newborns and is not concerning. Vernix caseosa (choice B) is a white, cheesy substance found on newborn skin and is a normal finding. While a respiratory rate of 50/min (choice C) is slightly elevated, it is not as concerning as a high heart rate in a newborn.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This insulin has a peak effect of 2 to 4 hours.
• B. This insulin has a duration of action of 24 hours.
• C. This insulin is given before meals to control your blood sugar.
• D. You should avoid eating 30 minutes before or after taking this insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

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