ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
3. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
- A. Prothrombin and coagulation time
- B. Blood typing and cross-matching
- C. Bleeding and clotting time
- D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before administering a blood transfusion, it is crucial to perform blood typing and cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. This process helps prevent adverse reactions such as transfusion reactions, which can be life-threatening. Prothrombin and coagulation time, bleeding and clotting time, as well as CBC and electrolyte levels are important tests in other clinical contexts, but for blood transfusions, blood typing and cross-matching are essential to ensure patient safety.
4. When preparing an in-service on malpractice issues in nursing, which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication
- B. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical record
- C. Administering potassium via IV bolus
- D. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a high-risk procedure that requires careful attention and adherence to established protocols to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrest. Errors in administering IV medications, especially potent ones like potassium, can lead to severe harm to the patient and potential legal consequences for the healthcare provider. Therefore, including this example in the in-service on malpractice issues helps emphasize the importance of safe medication administration practices and the potential implications of errors.
5. Which of the following is the correct abbreviation for drops?
- A. Gtt.
- B. Gtts.
- C. Dp.
- D. Dr.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct abbreviation for drops in medical terminology is 'Gtt.' It is derived from the Latin word 'guttae,' meaning drops. The abbreviation 'Gtts.' (Choice B) is incorrect as it adds an unnecessary 's.' Choices C and D, 'Dp.' and 'Dr.,' are not standard abbreviations for drops in medical contexts, making them incorrect.
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