ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9�C (100.2�F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
2. Which pulse's absence may not be a significant finding when a patient is admitted to the hospital?
- A. Apical
- B. Radial
- C. Pedal
- D. Femoral
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The absence of the pedal pulse may not be significant if the patient has poor peripheral circulation or if the healthcare provider is focused on other pulse points. The pedal pulse is often weaker and may not always be palpable due to various factors, making its absence less concerning in certain situations. However, the absence of other pulses like radial or femoral pulses may indicate more critical conditions and require immediate attention.
3. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?
- A. 4,500/mm³
- B. 7,000/mm³
- C. 10,000/mm³
- D. 25,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.
4. For administering a cleansing enema, what is the common position typically used?
- A. Sims left lateral
- B. Dorsal Recumbent
- C. Supine
- D. Prone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct position for administering a cleansing enema is the Sims left lateral position. This position is preferred as it helps to facilitate the procedure by allowing gravity to assist in the flow of the enema solution. The individual lies on their left side with the right knee flexed towards the chest, which helps to promote retention of the enema solution and its distribution throughout the colon. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The dorsal recumbent position (Choice B) is commonly used for physical examinations of the abdomen and genitalia. The supine position (Choice C) involves lying flat on the back and is not ideal for administering enemas. The prone position (Choice D) is lying flat on the stomach and is not suitable for administering enemas.
5. Why is a precise amount of oxygen necessary for a patient with COPD to prevent which complication?
- A. Cardiac arrest related to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2)
- B. Circulatory overload due to hypervolemia
- C. Respiratory excitement
- D. Inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In patients with COPD, the respiratory drive is often stimulated by low oxygen levels. Administering too much oxygen can inhibit this hypoxic drive, leading to respiratory depression and potential respiratory failure. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully regulate the oxygen therapy to prevent the inhibition of the respiratory hypoxic stimulus in COPD patients.
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