Nursing Elites

1. Which technique in physical examination is used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree?

• A. Palpation
• B. Auscultation
• C. Inspection
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Auscultation. Auscultation is a technique in physical examination used to assess the movement of air through the tracheobronchial tree. During auscultation, healthcare providers listen to lung sounds using a stethoscope to detect abnormalities such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds, which can indicate conditions affecting the airways or lungs. Palpation (Choice A) involves feeling the body for abnormalities, Inspection (Choice C) involves visual examination, and Percussion (Choice D) involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help in assessing underlying structures, but they are not directly used to assess air movement through the tracheobronchial tree.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health records of five clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. A client who experienced a near-drowning incident
• B. A client following coronary artery bypass graft surgery
• C. A client who has a hemoglobin of 15.1 g/dL
• D. A client who has dysphagia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe lung condition that can be triggered by various factors such as near-drowning incidents, surgeries like coronary artery bypass graft, and underlying conditions like dysphagia. Hemoglobin levels do not directly influence the risk of developing ARDS. A hemoglobin level of 15.1 g/dL falls within the normal range and does not predispose an individual to ARDS.

3. A client has global aphasia affecting both receptive and expressive language abilities. Which intervention should NOT be included in the client's care plan?

• A. Speak to the client at a slower rate.
• B. Assist the client in using flash cards with pictures.
• C. Speak to the client in a loud voice.
• D. Give instructions one step at a time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with global aphasia have difficulty understanding and expressing language. Speaking loudly may not improve comprehension and can be perceived as aggressive. Therefore, it is important not to speak loudly to a client with global aphasia. Speaking at a slower rate, using visual aids like flash cards, and breaking down instructions into simple steps can facilitate communication and understanding for the client.

4. What is the appropriate needle gauge for intradermal injection?

• A. 20G
• B. 22G
• C. 25G
• D. 26G

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intradermal injections require a very fine needle to be used to deliver the medication into the dermis layer of the skin. A 26G needle is typically used for intradermal injections as it is thin enough to penetrate the skin's surface and deposit the medication accurately.

5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
• B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
• C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
• D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client on the importance of rising slowly when getting out of bed is crucial due to the risk of orthostatic hypotension associated with furosemide use. This precaution helps prevent dizziness and falls. Options A and D are incorrect as furosemide commonly causes hypokalemia and dehydration, respectively, rather than high potassium levels or overhydration. Option B is inaccurate as clients on furosemide need to reduce sodium intake to manage fluid retention.

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