Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
• B. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep.
• C. Take a 1 hr nap during the day.
• D. Perform exercises prior to bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the older adult client to eat a light snack before bedtime. This is beneficial as it helps prevent hunger, which can disrupt sleep. Choice B is incorrect as staying in bed for a prolonged time if unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as taking a 1-hour nap during the day can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night. Choice D is incorrect as performing exercises prior to bedtime can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

2. What are the early signs of DVT?

• A. Leg pain, swelling, and redness
• B. Shortness of breath and high fever
• C. Cough and chest pain
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation and low blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leg pain, swelling, and redness are early signs of DVT. DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) is a condition where blood clots form in deep veins, commonly in the legs. These clots can cause symptoms like pain, swelling, and redness in the affected leg. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms more commonly associated with other conditions like pulmonary embolism (shortness of breath and high fever), respiratory issues (cough and chest pain), and cardiovascular problems (decreased oxygen saturation and low blood pressure), respectively. Therefore, they are not indicative of early signs of DVT.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago. The nurse notes excessive lochia discharge. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer pain medication
• B. Perform a fundal massage for the client
• C. Check the baby's heart rate
• D. Apply an ice pack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when noting excessive lochia discharge in a client who delivered a full-term newborn 16 hours ago is to perform a fundal massage. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions, which in turn reduces bleeding in postpartum clients. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as addressing the excessive lochia discharge is crucial to prevent complications. Checking the baby's heart rate (Choice C) is important but not the first action to manage the mother's condition. Applying an ice pack (Choice D) is not appropriate for managing excessive lochia discharge; fundal massage is the initial intervention to address this issue effectively.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. After drawing up the medication, the nurse accidentally brushes the needle on the counter's surface. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Prepare a new dose of insulin injection
• B. Administer the insulin as it is
• C. Wipe the needle with an alcohol swab
• D. Ask the provider for guidance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to prepare a new dose of insulin injection. Accidentally brushing the needle on a contaminated surface can lead to infection risk. Administering the insulin as it is or just wiping the needle with an alcohol swab would not be sufficient to eliminate the risk of infection. Asking the provider for guidance is not necessary in this situation as the nurse can independently take the appropriate action to ensure patient safety.

5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

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