Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
• B. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep.
• C. Take a 1 hr nap during the day.
• D. Perform exercises prior to bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the older adult client to eat a light snack before bedtime. This is beneficial as it helps prevent hunger, which can disrupt sleep. Choice B is incorrect as staying in bed for a prolonged time if unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as taking a 1-hour nap during the day can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night. Choice D is incorrect as performing exercises prior to bedtime can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Administer oxygen and call for emergency help
• B. Monitor vital signs and provide pain relief
• C. Provide nitroglycerin and thrombolytics
• D. Administer diuretics and provide a high-protein diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and seeking emergency help are crucial initial steps in managing a patient with suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Oxygen helps to improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, reducing its workload and preventing further damage. Calling for emergency help ensures timely access to advanced medical care, including interventions like thrombolytics. Monitoring vital signs and providing pain relief are important but secondary to the immediate need for oxygen and emergency assistance. Providing nitroglycerin and thrombolytics should be done under medical supervision and following appropriate protocols, not as the first step. Administering diuretics and altering the patient's diet are not indicated in the acute management of MI.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

5. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who is 4 hr postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery.
• B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr.
• D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hours is crucial to ensure adequate pain control in the immediate postoperative period. Choice A is incorrect because clear liquids are typically initiated gradually and advanced as tolerated but not specifically at 6 hours post-surgery. Choice B is incorrect as cromolyn nebulizer solution is not indicated for postoperative pain management in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as applying a warm compress may not be appropriate for the operative site after appendicitis surgery and can potentially increase the risk of infection.

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