ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
- B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
- C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
- D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.
2. What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the site
- B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
- C. Increase the IV flow rate to prevent dehydration
- D. Monitor the site for signs of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with phlebitis at the IV site is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and continuing the IV can lead to complications such as infection or thrombosis. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Increasing the IV flow rate is not indicated and may worsen the inflammation. Monitoring for signs of infection is important, but the priority is to remove the source of inflammation by discontinuing the IV.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
- B. Check the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes.
- C. Obtain a prescription for restraint within 4 hours.
- D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a situation where a verbal prescription for restraints is obtained for a client experiencing acute mania, the nurse should document the client's condition every 15 minutes. This frequent documentation allows for accurate monitoring of the client's condition, ensuring safety and compliance. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is not directly related to the need for restraints in this scenario. Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours (Choice C) is not a priority when a verbal prescription is already obtained and immediate action is needed for the client's safety.
4. What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?
- A. Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension
- B. Ensure the correct placement of the feeding tube
- C. Assess for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to prevent aspiration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.
5. What are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. Sudden shortness of breath
- B. Chest pain
- C. Cough with blood
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism can manifest with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing up blood. These symptoms are classic presentations of a pulmonary embolism due to the blockage of blood flow to the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Each symptom alone can be seen in various other conditions, but when occurring together, they strongly suggest a pulmonary embolism. Sudden shortness of breath is due to decreased oxygenation, chest pain can result from the strain on the heart, and coughing with blood may indicate damage to the lung tissue. Choosing any single symptom would not encompass the full range of presentations seen in a pulmonary embolism.
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