Nursing Elites

1. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Severe agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

2. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit potassium and phosphorus intake
• C. Increase intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium and phosphorus intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium and phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function. Option A is incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods can exacerbate hyperkalemia in individuals with kidney disease. Option C may not be ideal as excessive protein intake can put extra strain on the kidneys. Option D is not the priority; while adequate fluid intake is important, it is not the primary focus when teaching dietary considerations for chronic kidney disease.

3. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

4. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Give a bedtime snack
• B. Encourage a short nap in the afternoon
• C. Encourage exercise right before bed
• D. Establish a regular exercise routine 2 hours or more before bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Establishing a regular exercise routine at least 2 hours before bedtime promotes better sleep in older adults. Giving a bedtime snack (choice A) may disrupt sleep due to digestion, encouraging a short nap in the afternoon (choice B) can interfere with nighttime sleep, and encouraging exercise right before bed (choice C) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

5. What should the nurse do first when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress?

• A. Notify the provider
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps to clear secretions and improve the client's ability to breathe. Notifying the provider (choice A) can cause a delay in immediate intervention. Administering a bronchodilator (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice D) can be helpful but should come after addressing the immediate need for suctioning to clear the airway.

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