a nurse is collecting data from a client who has posttraumatic stress disorder ptsd which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
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1. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

2. What is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of anaphylaxis, all of the listed interventions are crucial for effective management. Administering epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction rapidly. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to vital organs, and monitoring the airway is essential to prevent obstruction and maintain a clear air passage. Therefore, all three interventions are necessary in managing anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient to address all aspects of anaphylaxis, making the comprehensive approach of 'All of the above' the correct answer.

3. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

5. A client with active tuberculosis is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should take antitubercular medications for a minimum of 6 months to ensure complete eradication of the infection. Choice A is incorrect as stopping the medication early can result in treatment failure and development of drug-resistant TB. Choice C is incorrect as regular TB skin tests are not needed once the client has been diagnosed and treated. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a mask at all times is not necessary for a client with active TB; proper cough etiquette should be followed instead.

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