Nursing Elites

1. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Severe agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use abdominal breathing during physical activity
• B. Inhale quickly and deeply through the nose
• C. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
• D. Breathe quickly and deeply during exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood glucose.
• B. Decreased urine output.
• C. Dependent edema.
• D. Jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dependent edema. In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation, leading to fluid accumulation in the systemic circulation. This fluid backs up in the venous system, causing increased pressure in the veins of the body, resulting in dependent edema, usually starting in the lower extremities. Elevated blood glucose (choice A) is not directly related to right-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output (choice B) may occur in conditions like acute kidney injury but is not a specific finding of right-sided heart failure. Jaundice (choice D) is more commonly associated with liver dysfunction, not typically seen in right-sided heart failure.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

5. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

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