Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an early indicator that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning?

• A. Decreased respiratory rate
• B. Irritability
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Decreased oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is an early indicator that suctioning is necessary for a client with a tracheostomy. Irritability can signal discomfort or difficulty breathing, which may be due to the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Decreased respiratory rate, bradycardia, and decreased oxygen saturation are not typically early indicators that suctioning is needed in a client with a tracheostomy. These symptoms may occur later if the airway is not cleared promptly.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

3. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?

• A. Sleep disturbances
• B. Concomitant depression
• C. Agitation and assaultiveness
• D. Confusion and withdrawal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?

• A. Decerebrate posturing.
• B. Hypervigilance.
• C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

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