ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. A history of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B. A history of hypertension
- C. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- D. A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with delirium?
- A. Assess for confusion and reorient the patient
- B. Provide a quiet environment and administer sedatives
- C. Provide oxygen therapy and monitor vital signs
- D. Provide pain relief and monitor for signs of recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with delirium is by assessing for confusion and reorienting the patient. Delirium is characterized by acute confusion and disturbance in attention, so reorienting the patient to time, place, and person can help improve their awareness and cognition. Providing a quiet environment is important to reduce stimuli that can exacerbate delirium, but administering sedatives may worsen the condition. Oxygen therapy and monitoring vital signs are essential aspects of general patient care but are not specific to managing delirium. Providing pain relief is important for overall patient comfort but may not directly address the core issue of delirium.
3. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?
- A. Assess level of consciousness and motor function
- B. Check for headache and nausea
- C. Monitor reflexes and pupil size
- D. Assess for tremors and confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor the client's temperature every 4 hours
- B. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed
- D. Monitor daily fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in clients receiving TPN because the solution has a high glucose content. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia and allows for timely adjustments in the TPN formulation if needed. Monitoring the client's temperature (Choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Administering insulin (Choice C) should be based on blood glucose levels and the healthcare provider's orders; it is not a standard intervention for all clients on TPN. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice D) is important for overall fluid balance but is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels specifically for clients on TPN.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
- C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.
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