a nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative ppd to a client who has suspected tuberculosis which of the following actions should th
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is preparing to administer purified protein derivative (PPD) to a client who has suspected tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ensure the injection produces a wheal on the skin. A wheal indicates that the PPD has been administered correctly, allowing for the proper interpretation of results. Administering the injection in the client's thigh (choice B) is not the recommended site for PPD administration; it should be administered intradermally. Using an 18-gauge needle (choice C) is unnecessary and not the standard practice for PPD administration as a smaller gauge needle is preferred for intradermal injections. Massaging the site after injection (choice D) can lead to inaccurate results by dispersing the solution, so it is important to avoid touching the site after the injection to prevent altering the test results.

2. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction and requires immediate intervention. Chills are more commonly associated with a febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Hypertension is not a common finding in a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

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