ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. What should be done to minimize the risk of injury for a client with dementia?
- A. Ensure the client has consistent caregivers
 - B. Dim the lights in the client's room
 - C. Allow the client to sleep with the bedrails raised
 - D. Encourage family members to stay with the client
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client has consistent caregivers. This helps reduce confusion and stress for clients with dementia by providing familiarity and routine. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice B) may not directly address the risk of injury. Allowing the client to sleep with the bedrails raised (Choice C) can pose a risk if not properly monitored. Encouraging family members to stay with the client (Choice D) may not always be feasible and may not provide the necessary professional support and consistency that consistent caregivers can offer.
2. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?
- A. Provide clear instructions on how to ask for assistance
 - B. Gradually resume self-care tasks, focusing on rest periods
 - C. Encourage assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
 - D. Encourage the client to remain in bed until fully rested
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.
3. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Amnesia
 - B. Hypervigilance
 - C. Hallucinations
 - D. Severe agitation
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.
4. What are the signs of hypoglycemia, and how should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing this condition?
- A. Shakiness or Tremors
 - B. Confusion or Irritability
 - C. Hunger
 - D. Dizziness or Lightheadedness
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs of hypoglycemia include shakiness, confusion, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness. However, the classic and most common early sign is shakiness or tremors. When a patient is experiencing hypoglycemia, a healthcare provider should respond promptly by administering glucose to raise the blood sugar levels. Choice A is correct as it directly addresses one of the primary signs of hypoglycemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while confusion, irritability, hunger, dizziness, and lightheadedness can also be signs of hypoglycemia, shakiness or tremors are the classic and most common early symptoms that healthcare providers should be particularly vigilant for.
5. A client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy has a urine output of 25 mL/hr. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder.
 - B. Absent bowel sounds.
 - C. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing.
 - D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr.
 
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output below 30 mL/hr indicates a potential complication, such as hypovolemia or renal impairment, and should be reported. Abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder can be common after a cholecystectomy due to referred pain from the diaphragm, whereas absent bowel sounds may be expected temporarily postoperatively. Brown drainage on the surgical dressing is typical in the early postoperative period and may represent old blood or other normal discharge.
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