which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube who reports nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's next step?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This action helps relieve blockages that may be causing the symptoms of nausea and decreased gastric secretions. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) may mask the underlying issue without addressing the possible blockage. Increasing the suction setting (Choice C) is not indicated without first addressing the potential blockage. Replacing the NG tube (Choice D) is also premature before attempting to clear any obstructions.

3. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.

4. A healthcare professional is assisting with the admission of a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect the provider to prescribe for the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage anxiety and prevent seizures during alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Choice A) is an antipsychotic medication and is not typically used for alcohol withdrawal. Disulfiram (Choice B) is used in the treatment of alcohol use disorder but is not indicated for alcohol withdrawal. Phenobarbital (Choice D) may be used for alcohol withdrawal seizures but is not the first-line medication for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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