which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to minimize the risk of injury for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm system is crucial in minimizing the risk of injury for a client with dementia. This intervention helps alert staff when the client is attempting to leave the bed, reducing the chances of falls. Raising all four side rails while the client is in bed (Choice B) can lead to restraint-related issues and is not recommended unless necessary for safety reasons. Applying a soft wrist restraint (Choice C) is generally not the first choice in managing clients with dementia due to the risk of complications and loss of mobility. Dimming the lights in the client's room (Choice D) may not directly address the risk of injury associated with dementia and may even increase the risk of falls due to poor visibility.

3. A client with a pressure ulcer is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cleaning a wound from the center outwards is the most appropriate action as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Choice A is incorrect as phenol solutions can be harmful to the wound and delay healing. Choice B may increase the risk of infection as warmth can promote bacterial growth. Choice D is unnecessary unless there are signs of infection present.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a leg fracture and reports severe pain. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking the client's neurovascular status is the priority when caring for a client with severe pain after a leg fracture. This assessment is crucial to identify any signs of vascular compromise or nerve damage, such as compartment syndrome. Administering pain medication can help alleviate the pain but should only be done after ensuring the client's neurovascular status is stable. Repositioning or elevating the leg may worsen the condition if there are underlying vascular issues, making these options lower in priority than assessing neurovascular status.

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