ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide lemon-glycerin swabs
- B. Encourage the client to eat soft foods
- C. Avoid using toothpaste
- D. Instruct the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with stomatitis is to encourage them to eat soft foods. Soft foods help prevent further irritation of the mouth, making it easier for the client to eat and reducing discomfort. Providing lemon-glycerin swabs could be too harsh on the already irritated mucosa. Avoiding toothpaste is relevant for clients with stomatitis to prevent further irritation. Instructing the client to use a mouthwash containing alcohol is contraindicated as alcohol can further irritate the mucosa.
2. What are the signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia and how should it be managed?
- A. Muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Confusion and bradycardia; administer insulin and glucose
- C. Fatigue and irregular heart rate; administer diuretics
- D. Nausea and vomiting; administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, making choice A correct. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac effects, and calcium gluconate is used to stabilize the heart by antagonizing the effects of potassium. Choices B, C, and D describe symptoms and interventions that are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Confusion and bradycardia are not common in hyperkalemia, and insulin and glucose are used in hyperkalemia only under specific circumstances. Fatigue and irregular heart rate are vague symptoms, and diuretics are not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia. Nausea and vomiting are nonspecific symptoms and sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the management of hyperkalemia.
3. When reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia, what should the nurse prioritize addressing?
- A. Mild confusion in the morning
- B. Restlessness and agitation
- C. Incontinence
- D. Frequent wandering at night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for clients with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority as it can lead to distress, safety risks, and potential harm to the client or others. Restlessness and agitation are common behavioral symptoms of dementia and can indicate unmet needs, discomfort, or confusion. Managing these symptoms promptly can help improve the client's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls, injuries, or escalation of challenging behaviors. While other issues like mild confusion, incontinence, and wandering are also important to address, managing restlessness and agitation takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the client's well-being and safety.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for an abdominal paracentesis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take to prepare the client for this procedure?
- A. Assist the client to void
- B. Instruct the client to hold their breath
- C. Place the client in a lateral recumbent position
- D. Prepare to administer a sedative
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assisting the client to void before a paracentesis is essential to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure. Voiding helps empty the bladder, preventing accidental puncture during the insertion of the needle. Instructing the client to hold their breath is incorrect and can increase the risk of complications. Placing the client in a lateral recumbent position is not directly related to bladder safety during a paracentesis. Preparing to administer a sedative is not a standard preparation for this procedure and is not aimed at preventing bladder injury.
5. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
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