Nursing Elites

1. What is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Provide oxygen
• C. Monitor airway
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of anaphylaxis, all of the listed interventions are crucial for effective management. Administering epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction rapidly. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to vital organs, and monitoring the airway is essential to prevent obstruction and maintain a clear air passage. Therefore, all three interventions are necessary in managing anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient to address all aspects of anaphylaxis, making the comprehensive approach of 'All of the above' the correct answer.

2. What is the priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium?

• A. Administer anti-anxiety medication
• B. Identify any underlying causes of delirium
• C. Reduce environmental stimulation to calm the client
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority in managing a client diagnosed with delirium is to identify any underlying causes. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare providers can address the issue effectively and tailor the treatment plan accordingly. Administering anti-anxiety medication (Choice A) may help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of delirium. Similarly, reducing environmental stimulation (Choice C) and encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may provide some relief, but they do not target the primary concern of identifying and addressing the underlying causes of delirium.

3. What is the priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively?

• A. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• B. Check for air leaks and proper functioning of the chest tube
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Encourage frequent coughing to clear secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when managing a client with a chest tube postoperatively is to check for air leaks and ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube. This is crucial to prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure in the pleural space and should not be done without a specific medical indication. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing helps with lung expansion but is not the priority over ensuring the chest tube's proper function. Encouraging frequent coughing may increase the risk of dislodging the chest tube or causing complications.

4. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?

• A. Provide clear instructions on how to ask for assistance
• B. Gradually resume self-care tasks, focusing on rest periods
• C. Encourage assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Encourage the client to remain in bed until fully rested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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