ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?
- A. Administer epinephrine
- B. Provide oxygen
- C. Monitor airway
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases of anaphylaxis, all of the listed interventions are crucial for effective management. Administering epinephrine is the primary treatment to reverse the allergic reaction rapidly. Providing oxygen ensures adequate oxygenation to vital organs, and monitoring the airway is essential to prevent obstruction and maintain a clear air passage. Therefore, all three interventions are necessary in managing anaphylaxis. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient to address all aspects of anaphylaxis, making the comprehensive approach of 'All of the above' the correct answer.
2. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?
- A. Increase intake of dairy products
- B. Limit intake of red meat and shellfish
- C. Limit intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
- D. Limit intake of fruit juices and milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication of a need for dosage adjustment?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased appetite may indicate that the client is experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to an excessive dose of levothyroxine. This finding suggests a need for a dosage adjustment to prevent potential complications. Tremors are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, not necessarily indicating a need for dosage adjustment. Bradycardia and diarrhea are not typical signs of an incorrect levothyroxine dosage and would not directly warrant a need for adjustment.
4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Increased urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
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