ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client with hypothyroidism may present with which of the following findings?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hair loss
- C. Dry skin
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dry skin is a common manifestation of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels, leading to reduced sweating and oil production. Weight gain may occur due to a slowed metabolism, not diarrhea, as hypothyroidism is more commonly associated with constipation. Hair loss is typically associated with hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
- D. Heart rate 58/min.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?
- A. Total bilirubin.
- B. Urine ketones.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Platelet count.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.
4. A client with hypokalemia is commonly expected to present with which of the following findings?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Nausea
- C. Tingling sensation
- D. Increased thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle weakness. Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness. This occurs because potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and a deficiency can impair muscle strength. Nausea (choice B) is not a typical finding associated with hypokalemia. Tingling sensation (choice C) is more commonly linked to issues like nerve damage or poor blood circulation, rather than hypokalemia. Increased thirst (choice D) is not a direct symptom of hypokalemia; it is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes or dehydration.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?
- A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
- B. Encourage oral fluids only
- C. Administer IV fluids immediately
- D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.
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