a nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following a colon resection which of the following assessments is the nurses priority
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Nursing Elites

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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a colon resection. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

3. When providing family education for those who have a relative with Alzheimer's disease about minimizing stress, which of the following suggestions is most relevant?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most relevant suggestion for minimizing stress in individuals with Alzheimer's disease is to maintain consistency in the environment, routine, and caregivers. This approach helps create a sense of familiarity and security for the individual, reducing stress and anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests allowing the client to go to bed multiple times during the day, which may disrupt their routine and lead to confusion. Choice B is incorrect as continuously testing cognitive functioning can be overwhelming and stressful for the individual. Choice C is also incorrect as providing reality orientation in cases of severe memory loss can cause frustration and confusion, ultimately increasing stress levels.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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