Nursing Elites

1. What is the first step when administering a blood transfusion?

• A. Warm the blood to body temperature
• B. Verify the client's blood type before administration
• C. Administer the blood through an IV push
• D. Administer diuretics before the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type before administration. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice A) is not the first step and is not typically done during blood transfusions. Administering the blood through an IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow infusion. Administering diuretics before the transfusion (Choice D) is unnecessary and not a standard practice when initiating a blood transfusion.

2. What are the potential complications of a patient receiving hemodialysis?

• A. Infection and hypotension
• B. Pulmonary embolism and fluid overload
• C. Blood clot formation and electrolyte imbalance
• D. Low blood pressure and nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: What are the potential complications of a patient receiving hemodialysis? Rationale: Infection and hypotension are common complications in patients undergoing hemodialysis. Pulmonary embolism and fluid overload (Choice B) are less common complications associated with hemodialysis. Blood clot formation and electrolyte imbalance (Choice C) are also potential complications but are not as common as infection and hypotension. Low blood pressure and nausea (Choice D) can occur but are not as prevalent as infection and hypotension.

3. What is the priority nursing action for a client with dehydration?

• A. Administer oral fluids
• B. Monitor electrolyte levels
• C. Administer antiemetics as needed
• D. Encourage bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels. Dehydration can cause imbalances in electrolytes such as sodium and potassium, affecting essential bodily functions. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial to promptly identify and correct any imbalances. While administering oral fluids (Choice A) is vital in treating dehydration, monitoring electrolyte levels takes precedence as it directly addresses the underlying imbalance. Administering antiemetics (Choice C) may be necessary for nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over electrolyte monitoring. Encouraging bed rest (Choice D) can conserve energy but is not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels to prevent complications related to electrolyte imbalances.

4. A client with an NG tube is reporting nausea and a decrease in gastric secretions. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Increase the suction pressure
• B. Irrigate the NG tube with sterile water
• C. Turn the client onto their left side
• D. Replace the NG tube with a new one

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with an NG tube experiencing nausea and decreased gastric secretions is to irrigate the NG tube with sterile water. This helps alleviate blockages and can improve the client's symptoms. Increasing the suction pressure (Choice A) may exacerbate the issue and cause further discomfort. Turning the client onto their left side (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the reported symptoms. Replacing the NG tube with a new one (Choice D) should be considered only after attempting initial interventions like irrigation.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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