ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has Tourette syndrome. The client reports taking haloperidol 0.5 mL orally three times a day at home. Which of the following components of the prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Frequency
- B. Dosage
- C. Timing of doses
- D. Route
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should question the dosage of haloperidol as it is typically administered in milligrams (mg) and not milliliters (mL). The dosage should be expressed in a standardized unit for accuracy and to prevent medication errors. Frequency, timing of doses, and route are also important components of a prescription, but in this case, the nurse should focus on the unusual dosage form.
2. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Calcium
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
3. Which of the following is a key consideration when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer?
- A. Cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying ointment
- C. Cleanse the wound with alcohol
- D. Cover the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying ointment is crucial when providing wound care for a client with a pressure ulcer. This step helps identify the presence of any infection, allowing for appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because covering the wound with a dry, sterile dressing may not address potential infections. Choice C is incorrect as cleansing the wound with alcohol can be too harsh and drying to the surrounding skin. Choice D is incorrect because covering the wound with a wet-to-dry dressing is not typically recommended for pressure ulcers, as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
- D. Heart rate 58/min.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a leg fracture and reports severe pain. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Administer pain medication
- B. Reposition the client's leg
- C. Elevate the client's leg
- D. Check the client's neurovascular status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking the client's neurovascular status is the priority when caring for a client with severe pain after a leg fracture. This assessment is crucial to identify any signs of vascular compromise or nerve damage, such as compartment syndrome. Administering pain medication can help alleviate the pain but should only be done after ensuring the client's neurovascular status is stable. Repositioning or elevating the leg may worsen the condition if there are underlying vascular issues, making these options lower in priority than assessing neurovascular status.
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