ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. What are the complications of untreated DVT?
- A. Pulmonary embolism and stroke
- B. Infection and kidney failure
- C. Hypertension and vision loss
- D. Dehydration and electrolyte imbalance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism and stroke. Untreated DVT can result in these serious complications, emphasizing the importance of timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent common complications associated with untreated deep vein thrombosis. Infection and kidney failure, hypertension and vision loss, as well as dehydration and electrolyte imbalance are not typically direct consequences of untreated DVT.
2. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.
3. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?
- A. Sleep disturbances
- B. Concomitant depression
- C. Agitation and assaultiveness
- D. Confusion and withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.
4. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?
- A. Check for facial droop
- B. Assess speech clarity
- C. Perform a neurological assessment
- D. Call for emergency assistance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a brainstem injury. The nurse should expect the client to exhibit which of the following findings?
- A. Decerebrate posturing.
- B. Hypervigilance.
- C. Absence of deep tendon reflexes.
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decerebrate posturing. Decerebrate posturing is an abnormal body posture characterized by rigid extension of the arms and legs, which indicates severe brainstem injury affecting the midbrain and pons. This posture suggests dysfunction or damage to neural pathways controlling muscle tone. Choice B, hypervigilance, is not typically associated with brainstem injury but rather with increased alertness and arousal. Choice C, absence of deep tendon reflexes, is not a specific finding related to brainstem injury. Choice D, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15, indicates a fully awake and alert state, which is not expected in a client with a brainstem injury.
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