Nursing Elites

1. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a fever?

• A. Administer antipyretics and monitor vital signs
• B. Provide cold compresses and ensure adequate hydration
• C. Encourage the patient to rest and increase fluid intake
• D. Restrict fluid intake and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When managing a patient with a fever, the appropriate approach involves administering antipyretics to reduce the fever and monitoring the patient's vital signs to assess their response to treatment. Administering antipyretics helps to lower the body temperature and manage fever symptoms effectively. Monitoring vital signs is crucial to ensure the patient's condition is improving. Providing cold compresses, as mentioned in choice B, can help in managing fever symptoms, but it does not address the root cause of the fever. Encouraging the patient to rest, as stated in choice C, is beneficial for recovery, but increasing fluid intake is essential to prevent dehydration. Restricting fluid intake and providing bed rest, as in choice D, can lead to dehydration and hinder the body's ability to fight off the infection causing the fever. Therefore, the best course of action for a healthcare provider is to administer antipyretics while closely monitoring the patient's vital signs.

2. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
• C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
• D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.

3. When caring for a client experiencing delirium, which of the following is essential?

• A. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
• B. Identifying the underlying causative condition or illness
• C. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation
• D. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing delirium, it is essential to identify the underlying causative condition or illness. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medication side effects, dehydration, or underlying health conditions. By identifying the root cause, appropriate treatment can be provided. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics (Choice A) may be considered in some cases but is not the primary essential step. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation (Choice C) can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications (Choice D) should only be done under medical supervision, as some medications may be necessary for the client's well-being.

4. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

5. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

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