Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The nurse learns that the client has decided not to have surgery even though they have already signed the informed consent form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ignore the client's decision and proceed
• B. Report the situation to the provider
• C. Ask the family to convince the client
• D. Reassess the need for surgery with the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to report the client's decision to the provider who obtained informed consent. This ensures that the provider is informed of the client's change in decision and can discuss the situation further with the client. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the client's decision is not appropriate and goes against the principles of patient autonomy. Choice C is incorrect because involving the family in convincing the client can be coercive and may not respect the client's autonomy. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not re-sign the informed consent form without the client's consent and a discussion with the provider.

2. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?

• A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
• B. Administer a bronchodilator
• C. Suction the tracheostomy
• D. Encourage deep breathing exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.

3. During a presentation on basic first aid, a nurse educator evaluates a newly licensed home health nurse's understanding of heat stroke. Which symptom indicates the client has heat stroke?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Clammy skin
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke can lead to hypotension, which is low blood pressure. This is a common symptom of heat stroke and requires immediate intervention. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), clammy skin, and bradypnea (slow breathing) are not typically associated with heat stroke. In heat stroke, the body's temperature regulation system fails, leading to a rapid rise in body temperature, which can cause various symptoms including hypotension.

4. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in urine
• B. Administer insulin and provide fluids
• C. Administer potassium and check for electrolyte imbalance
• D. Administer sodium bicarbonate and monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: To assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), healthcare providers should monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in the urine. Elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of ketones in urine are indicative of DKA. Choice B is incorrect because administering insulin and providing fluids are treatments for DKA rather than assessment measures. Choice C is incorrect as administering potassium and checking for electrolyte imbalance are interventions related to managing DKA complications, not initial assessment. Choice D is incorrect because administering sodium bicarbonate and monitoring urine output are not primary assessment actions for DKA.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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