Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?

• A. Boiled spinach
• B. Raw carrots
• C. Boiled chicken
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.

2. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage increased protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

4. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

• A. Analgesic
• B. Antiplatelet
• C. Anticoagulant
• D. Thrombolytic

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

5. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

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