Nursing Elites

1. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?

• A. Boiled spinach
• B. Raw carrots
• C. Boiled chicken
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.

2. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

3. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
• B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
• C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
• D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.

4. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in urine
• B. Administer insulin and provide fluids
• C. Administer potassium and check for electrolyte imbalance
• D. Administer sodium bicarbonate and monitor urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: To assess a patient with potential diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), healthcare providers should monitor blood glucose and check for ketones in the urine. Elevated blood glucose levels and the presence of ketones in urine are indicative of DKA. Choice B is incorrect because administering insulin and providing fluids are treatments for DKA rather than assessment measures. Choice C is incorrect as administering potassium and checking for electrolyte imbalance are interventions related to managing DKA complications, not initial assessment. Choice D is incorrect because administering sodium bicarbonate and monitoring urine output are not primary assessment actions for DKA.

5. What should be included in dietary teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage protein-rich foods to improve nutrition
• D. Increase calcium-rich foods in the diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit phosphorus and potassium intake for a client with chronic kidney disease. In renal insufficiency, the kidneys struggle to excrete these minerals, leading to their buildup in the blood, which can be harmful. Limiting phosphorus and potassium intake helps prevent further kidney damage and manage the progression of chronic kidney disease. Encouraging protein-rich foods (Choice C) may be counterproductive as excessive protein intake can burden the kidneys. Increasing potassium-rich foods (Choice A) is incorrect as high potassium levels can be detrimental in kidney disease. Increasing calcium-rich foods (Choice D) is not typically a focus in dietary teaching for chronic kidney disease unless there is a specific deficiency or need, as excessive calcium intake can also be harmful to kidney function.

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