ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?
- A. Boiled spinach
- B. Raw carrots
- C. Boiled chicken
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.
2. What is an early sign indicating the need for suctioning a client's tracheostomy?
- A. Irritability
- B. Hypotension
- C. Flushing
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Irritability is a crucial early sign that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning. Irritability could indicate a lack of oxygenation due to the airway blockage, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not typically direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may suggest hemodynamic instability, flushing could be related to autonomic responses, and bradycardia might indicate a cardiac issue rather than the need for suctioning.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Muscle weakness
- B. Nausea
- C. Increased thirst
- D. Restlessness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a characteristic finding in hyperkalemia. High levels of potassium can affect the normal function of muscles, leading to weakness. Nausea and increased thirst are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Restlessness is more commonly seen in conditions such as hypoxia or anxiety, not specifically in hyperkalemia.
4. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?
- A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
- B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
- D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.
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