what are the key steps in administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test

1. What are the key steps in administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crush medications and mix with food. When administering oral medications to a patient with dysphagia, crushing the medications and mixing them with food is a common method to aid in swallowing. Choice B is incorrect because using a straw could pose a choking hazard for patients with dysphagia. Choice C is incorrect as thickened liquids may not always be suitable for all medications. Choice D is incorrect because having the patient lie flat can increase the risk of aspiration, which is not recommended for patients with dysphagia.

2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dehydration management involves a comprehensive approach that includes monitoring fluid intake to assess the severity of dehydration, encouraging oral rehydration to replenish fluids orally if the patient can tolerate it, and administering IV fluids in severe cases where oral intake is insufficient. Choosing just one of these options may not address the diverse needs of patients with dehydration. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the most appropriate response as it encompasses the various strategies required for effective dehydration management.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.

4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

5. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

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