Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is maintaining droplet precautions for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wear a gown within 3 feet of the client
• B. Maintain a distance of 6 feet from the client
• C. Wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client
• D. Remove gloves before leaving the room

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when maintaining droplet precautions for a client with meningitis is to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client. This is essential to prevent the transmission of meningitis via respiratory droplets. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown is not specifically required for droplet precautions. Choice B suggests maintaining a distance of 6 feet, which is more applicable to airborne precautions, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed and disposed of properly, but it is not related to droplet precautions specifically.

2. What are the common causes of postoperative pain and how should it be managed?

• A. Surgical incision and muscle tension
• B. Nerve damage and wound complications
• C. Hypotension and respiratory issues
• D. Infection at the incision site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postoperative pain is commonly caused by the surgical incision and muscle tension. The correct answer is A. Surgical incisions cause tissue damage, triggering pain responses. Muscle tension can result from factors like positioning during surgery or guarding due to pain. Managing postoperative pain caused by surgical incisions and muscle tension involves the use of analgesics to alleviate discomfort. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Nerve damage and wound complications may also cause pain but are not as common as surgical incisions and muscle tension. Hypotension and respiratory issues are not direct causes of postoperative pain. Infection at the incision site can lead to pain, but it is a specific complication rather than a common cause of postoperative pain.

3. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be

• A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
• B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
• C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
• D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
• B. Stay in bed at least 1 hr if unable to fall asleep.
• C. Take a 1 hr nap during the day.
• D. Perform exercises prior to bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the older adult client to eat a light snack before bedtime. This is beneficial as it helps prevent hunger, which can disrupt sleep. Choice B is incorrect as staying in bed for a prolonged time if unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice C is incorrect as taking a 1-hour nap during the day can interfere with the ability to fall asleep at night. Choice D is incorrect as performing exercises prior to bedtime can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
• B. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L
• C. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L
• D. Calcium level of 8.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L is within the normal range, but monitoring potassium levels is crucial for clients taking furosemide. Furosemide can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels), which can lead to adverse effects such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium and calcium levels are not typically affected by furosemide, so they are not the priority findings to report to the provider in this case.

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