how should a nurse assess a patient with potential pneumonia
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

2. What are the key components of a neurological assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A neurological assessment includes evaluating the level of consciousness and motor function as they are key components in assessing neurological function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as headache, nausea, reflexes, pupil size, tremors, and confusion may be part of a neurological assessment but are not the key components that are fundamental for a comprehensive assessment.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

4. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is taking a low-dose aspirin daily. The nurse is reinforcing teaching with the client. The nurse should include that this medication has which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antiplatelet. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, making it an antiplatelet agent. This effect helps reduce the risk of blood clot formation in clients with CAD. Choice A, Analgesic, is incorrect because aspirin's primary action in this context is not pain relief. Choice C, Anticoagulant, is incorrect as aspirin does not directly inhibit coagulation factors. Choice D, Thrombolytic, is incorrect as aspirin does not actively break down clots but rather prevents their formation.

5. Which symptom would indicate a complication after a subdural hematoma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bulging posterior fontanelle is a sign of increased intracranial pressure in infants, not a common symptom after a subdural hematoma. In the context of a subdural hematoma, a decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of a complication as it can be a sign of worsening brain function due to increased pressure on the brain from the collection of blood in the subdural space. Increased appetite and high-pitched cry are not typically associated with complications of a subdural hematoma.

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