Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
• C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
• D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.

2. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

3. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What is the most appropriate next step?

• A. Apply a warm compress over the IV site
• B. Notify the provider and discontinue the IV infusion
• C. Increase the IV flow rate to clear the blockage
• D. Elevate the extremity and apply an ice pack

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phlebitis, inflammation of a vein, is a complication that requires prompt action. The most appropriate next step is to discontinue the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider. Applying a warm compress, increasing the IV flow rate, or applying an ice pack are not appropriate interventions for phlebitis. Warm compresses may worsen inflammation, increasing the IV flow rate could exacerbate the condition, and ice packs are not recommended for phlebitis.

4. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration on the left thumb due to a cut from a rusty metal can
• B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time
• C. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain
• D. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

5. A nurse is planning to irrigate and dress a clean, granulating wound for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Irrigate the wound with normal saline.
• B. Apply a wet-to-dry gauze dressing.
• C. Use a cotton ball to cleanse the wound.
• D. Administer an analgesic after the dressing change.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the wound with normal saline. Normal saline is the preferred solution for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and gentle, promoting healing in granulating wounds. Choice B, applying a wet-to-dry gauze dressing, is not appropriate for clean, granulating wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed upon removal. Choice C, using a cotton ball to cleanse the wound, is not ideal as cotton fibers can adhere to the wound and cause contamination. Choice D, administering an analgesic after the dressing change, is important for pain management but is not directly related to irrigating and dressing the wound.

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