Nursing Elites

1. What are the risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes?

• A. Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet
• B. Age, gender, and family history
• C. Smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension
• D. Frequent exercise and low-carbohydrate diet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and poor diet are established risk factors for developing Type 2 diabetes. Obesity puts extra pressure on the body's ability to properly control blood sugar levels. A sedentary lifestyle contributes to weight gain and insulin resistance. Poor diet, especially one high in processed foods and sugary beverages, can also increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because age, gender, family history, smoking, alcohol consumption, and hypertension can impact overall health but are not the primary risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

2. The nurse is making a home visit with a client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease. The client recently started on lorazepam (Ativan) due to increased anxiety. The nurse is cautioning the family about the use of lorazepam (Ativan). The nurse should instruct the family to report which of the following significant side effects to the healthcare provider?

• A. Paradoxical excitement
• B. Headache
• C. Slowing of reflexes
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, paradoxical excitement. Lorazepam can cause an unexpected response of paradoxical excitement, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. This reaction is characterized by increased anxiety, restlessness, and agitation instead of the expected calming effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because headache, slowing of reflexes, and fatigue are more common side effects of lorazepam and may not warrant immediate reporting unless severe or persistent.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. WBC count.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. Serum creatinine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

4. What should a healthcare professional prioritize when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administering sedative medication
• B. Providing a low-stimulation environment
• C. Identifying the underlying cause of the delirium
• D. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When managing a client with delirium, the priority should be to identify the underlying cause of the delirium. Delirium can result from various triggers such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. By determining the root cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted treatment and improve outcomes. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) could exacerbate delirium as these drugs can worsen confusion. While providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice B) is beneficial, it is not as critical as identifying the cause. Controlling behavioral symptoms with medication (Choice D) should only be considered after identifying and addressing the underlying cause of delirium.

5. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
• B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
• C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
• D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.

Similar Questions